Based on the above, which one of the following
combinations is
correct?
1. A - Protostome; B - Deuterostome; X - Mollusca; Y -
Cnidaria; ZProtozoa
2. A- Protostome; B -
Deuterostome; X - Echinodermata; Y -Mollusca; Z - Cnidaria
3. A - Deuterostome; B - Protostome; X - Crustacea; Y -
Mollusca; ZCnidaria
4. A - Deuterostome; B - Protostome; X - Echinodermata
YRoundworm; Z - Ctenophora
52. The fungal group presently classified under protists
is
1. Zygomycetes.
2. Oomycetes.
3. Deuteromycetes.
4. Discomycetes.
53. Name the common Indian bird that is generally seen in
groups (aggregation)
1. Bulbul
2. Warbler
3. Babbler
4. Sun bird
54. The fungus associated with human oral or vaginal
infection is
1. Fusarium.
2. Aspergillus
3. Candida.
4. Pneumocytis
55. The most common vegetation in the Western Ghats of
India is tropical moist deciduous forest but that in Deccan plateu is depleted thorn
forest.
The possible reason is
1. richer soil of Western Ghats compare to Deccan plateau.
2. extensive deforestation in Deccan plateau compared to
Western Ghats.
3. higher rainfall in Western
Ghat compared to Deccan plateau.
4. higher temperature in Deccan plate compared to Western
Ghats.
56. The following graph is for a logistically growing
population, with Nt
plotted on the X-axis. What is the parameter plotted on
the Y-axis?
1. dN/dt
2. Nt+1
3. dN/dt. 1/N
4. K
57. Annual weeds of arable lands are classified as
1. phonerophytes.
2. therophytes.
3. chamaephytes.
4. geophytes.
58. Which one of the following advancements in on the
animal classification is correct?
1. Protostomes à Pseudocoelomates à Deuterostomes à Eucoelomates
2. Acoelomates à Protostomes à Eucoelomates à Deuterostomes
3. Pseudocoelomates à Encoclomates à Protostomes à Deuterostomes
4. Protostomes à Deuterostomes à Acoelomates à Eucoelomates
59. Which of the following is the most appropriate
spectral bands for vegetation analysis using remote sensing platforms?
1. Red, Near Infrared
2. Infrared, Visible
3. Red, Microwave
4. Visible, Microwave
60. Which of the following diseases does not leave any
paleontological evidence?
1. Tuberculosis
2. Arthritis.
3. Rickets
4. Cholera
61. Greater male investment in the care of offspring is
most likely to lead to
1. a lek system.
2. stronger female choice.
3. Reverse sexual dimorphism
4. run-away selection.
62. A neuron that fires when an individual is eating by
hand, also fires when he sees someone else eating with hand. Such neurons are
called
1. mirror neurons.
2. mimicry neurons.
3. motor neurons.
4. reward neurons.
63. Which of the following microbial fermentations are
anaerobic?
1. Ethanol and acetone-butanol.
2. Citric acid and propionic acid.
3. Penicillin and vitamin B12.
4. Streptomycin and rifampicin.
64. Encasing of which of the following plant eel in a
gelatinous matrix is referred as artificial seed?
1. Microcalli
2. Somatic embryos
3. Root tips
4. Shoot tips
65. Which of the following transgenic crops have been
approved for commercial cultivation in India?
1. Cotton
2. Brinjal
3. Cotton and Brinjal
4. Cotton, Brassica,
Brinjal
66. Chinese Brake fern (Pteris vittata) is
hyperaccumulator of :
1. Cadmium.
2. Arsenic.
3. Lead.
4. Chromium.
67. Which of the following is NOT a post-translational
modification in a mammalian system?
1. Palmitoylation
2. glycosylation
3. peptidylation
4. phosphorylation
68. Haemoglobin has characteristic circular dichroism (CD)
peaks C in the far-UV, near UV and Soret regions. Contribution to near-UV CD comes
entirely from
1. aromatic amino acid
residues.
2. heme group.
3. heme and aromatic amino acid residues.
4. peptide bonds and aromatic amino acid residues.
69. A weed is assumed to be dispersed randomly in a
meadow. What statistical distribution will describe the dispersion correctly?
1. Binomial
2. Negative Binomial
3. Poisson
4. Normal
70. Co-localization of two fluorescently labeled proteins
in an organelle in cells is usually visualised by
1. interference-contrast microscopy.
2. scanning electron microscopy.
3. confocal microscopy.
4. atomic force microscopy.
71. Tryptic digest of a heptapeptide (built from 3 lysine
(K), 2 alanine (A), 1 tyrosine (Y) and 1 phenylalanine (F) yielded tri and tetrapeptide.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the
heptapeptide?
1. KAYAKFK 2. YKAAFKK
3. KYKAAKF 4. KYAAKFK
72. 100 ml of 0.1 M sodium acetate solution has a pH of
8.90. To this solution 1000 μl of 1M acetic acid (pKa = 4.76) of pH 2.80 is
added.
The pH of this mixture will be:
1. 8.90
2. 4.76
3. 2.80
4. 5.76
73. What are A, B and C in the following reactions?
1. Pyruvate, ribose 5-phosphate, glycogen.
2. Ribose 5-phosphate, glycogen, pyruvate.
3. Glycogen, pyruvate, ribose
5-phosphate.
4. Glycogen, citrate, ribose 5-phosphate.
74. Michaelis-Menten enzyme kinetics for a simple reaction
involving an enzyme (E) and substrate (S) is given by the scheme: 
description of Km, kcat and their relationship is provided in the following
description of Km, kcat and their relationship is provided in the following
statements.
A. Km represents association constant of the ES complex.
B. Km represents the dissociation constant of the ES
complex.
C. kcat
is the rate constant for the chemical
conversion of the ES
complex to substrate bound enzyme and product.
D. kcat/Km
is a rate constant that refers to the
properties and reactions
of the free enzyme and free substrate.
Which of the combinations of above statements is true?
1. A and C
2. B and D
3. A and D
4. B and C
75. A 26-residue peptide composed of alanine and leucine
shows a circular dichroism (CD) spectrum characteristic of α-helix at 50°C in 5
mM phosphate buffer at pH 7.4. Deconvolution of the spectrum indicates 60%
α-helical and 40% random conformation. When the peptide solution is cooled
gradually to 25°C, and the CD spectra are recorded at different temperatures,
the most likely observation will be that
1. the % helical content will decrease and % random
conformation will increase.
2. the % helical content will
increase and % random conformation will decrease.
3. there will be transition from α-helix to β- sheet.
4. there will be transition from α-helix to β-hairpin.
76. It has been observed that for the DNA double helix
melting, the value of ΔH (enthalpy change of denaturation) are 80 and 90
kcal/mole at 70° and 80°, respectively. Assuming that ΔCp (constant-pressure heat
capacity change) is independent of temperature, estimate ΔH associated with the
denaturation of DNA at 37°C.
This estimated
value of ΔH (kcal/mole) is
1. 27
2. 37.
3. 47.
4. 57.
77. Using FRAP (Fluorescence Recovery After
Photo-bleaching) techniques, diffusion coefficient of three integral membranes
proteins M1, M2
and M3 in a kidney cell is
calculated as 1 μm/s, 0.05 μm/s and 0.005 μm/s, receptively. Considering
fluid-mosaic nature of biological membrane and relationship of structural
organization of integralmembrane protein with diffusion coefficient, which
protein(s) will have highest number of integral membrane domain?
1. M2
and M3
2. M2
only
3. M3 only
4. M1
andM3
78. One highly pathogenic DNA virus enters into the host
cells by endocytosis replicates in the nucleus followed by cell lysis. You have
drugs at you disposal that block
A. acidification of vesicles.
B. mitochondrial transport.
C. nuclear export.
D. exocytosis.
Identify the right combination to prevent the infection.
1. A and B
2. Band D
3. A and C
4. A and D
79. When cells enter mitosis, their existing array of
cytoplasmic
microtubules has to be rapidly broken down and replaced
with the
mitotic spindle, which pulls the chromosomes into the
daughter cells.
The enzyme Katanin is activated during the onset of
mitosis and chops
microtubules into short pieces. The possible fate of the
microtubule
fragments created by Katanin will be
1. depolymerization.
2. aggregation.
3. degradation.
4. translocation.
80. A bacterial strain can use carbohydrates and
hydrocarbons as
growth substrates. The strain uses glucose following a
minimal lag
period after inoculation, regardless of the other
carbohydrates and
hydrocarbons in the growth medium. The following
observations were
also made.
A. In the absence of glucose, lactose is used after a lag
period of about
three times as long as the lag period for glucose
utilization.
B. The presence of hydrocarbons does not affect the lag
period for the
utilization of lactose.
C. The utilization pattern for all hydrocarbons is similar
to that of
lactose.
D. Branched hydrocarbons are not immediately utilized if
straight
chain hydrocarbons are initially present.
Which one of the following specific regulatory mechanisms
is
consistent with the above observations related to
carbohydrate and
hydrocarbon utilization?
1. Diauxie
2. End point repression
3. Catabolite repression
4. Transcription attenuation
81. Cell cycle is regulated by various cyclins and cyclin
dependent
kinases (CDK). On receiving mitotic stimuli, cyclin D, the
first cyclin
expressed, binds with existing CDK4 to form the active
cyclin D-CDK4
complex. This in turn phosphorylates retinoblastoma
protein (Rb)
which activates E2f to further activate the transcription
of various
downstream cyclins. In a particular cell type there is a
mutation in Rb
such that it cannot be phosphorylated. What will be the
correct
(Answer 3)
82. A bacterial culture was in log phase in the following
figure. At time x, an antibacterial compound was added to the culture.
Which of the following lines in the growth curve
represents the antibacterial activities of the compound? (Answer 2)
83. In a cell free extract containing DNA polymerase I, Mg2+,
dATP,
dGTP, dCTP and dTTP (3H), the following
DNA molecules were added:
a. Single stranded closed circular DNA molecule containing
824 nucleotides.
b. Single stranded closed circular DNA molecule having
1578 nucleotides base paired with a linear single standard DNA molecule of
824 nucleotides having a free-3'-OH group.
c. Double stranded linear DNA molecule containing 1578
nucleotides having free-3'-OH group at both ends.
d. Double stranded closed circular DNA molecule having 824
nucleotides.
The rate of DNA synthesis was measured by incorporation of
3H
thymidine in the DNA molecule and expressed as the percentage of
DNA synthesis relative to total DNA input.
Which one of the following graphs represents the correct
result?
(Answer 3)
84. The complex responses to different types of DNA damage
in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes fall into three main categories:
(i) damage bypass
(ii) damage reversal
(iii) damage removal
Many repair proteins are isolated like
(a) DNA methyl transferase
(b) DNA glycosylase
(c) DNA polymerase IV
Which one of the following represents the correct
combination?
1. (i) - (a), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (c)
2. (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a)
3. (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii)
- (b)
4. (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a)
85. In recent years, genome-wide transcription study using
high throughput sequence analysis has revealed some novel results that include:
(i) presence of RNA polymerase in both intra- and
intergenic regions of the genome
(ii) existence of non-coding RNAs generated from mRNA
coding genes.
(iii) existence of sense-and antisense transcripts
generated from the promoter and untranslated region of many annotated genes.
Possible interpretation of the above results are:
A. RNA polymerase can loosely bind to any part of the
genome but its affinity becomes strong only when it reaches the promoter.
B. Binding of RNA polymerase to non-promoter regions of
the genome leads to the generation of various non-coding regulatory RNAs.
C. Non-coding RNAs are generated from mRNA coding genes
due to aberrant transcription initiation and termination.
D. Sense and antisense transcripts are generated from the
promoter and untranslated regions of protein coding genes by a novel mechanism
of bidirectional transcription.
Identify the correct combination of the above
interpretations:
1. A and B
2. B and D
3. A and D
4. B and C
86. Aminacyl tRNA synthetases face two important
challenges:
i) They must recognize the correct set of tRNAs for a
particular amino acid.
ii) they must charge all of these isoaccepting tRNAs with
the correct amino acid.
Both of these processes are carried out with high fidelity
by the following possible mechanisms:
A. The discrimination ability resides predominantly at the
acceptor stem of the tRNAs.
B. The specificity is contributed by the anticodon loop in
tRNAs.
C. The specificity is embedded in the amino acyl
synthetase at the 'N' terminus
D. The specificity is contributed by the variable loop of
the tRNA.
Which of the following is correct?
1. A and B
2. A and C
3. B and C
4. A and D
87. During heat shock, mammalian cells shut down global
protein
synthesis while inducing heat shock proteins (Hsps). The
possible
molecular regulation(s) that could explain the phenomenon
are:
A. mRNA of all proteins, except those of Hsps, undergoes
degradation
during heat shock.
B. Cap-dependent translation of most mRNAs is affected
during heat
shock due to denaturation of cap binding protein, eIF-4E.
C. Translation initiation of Hsp mRNAs takes place through
their
internal ribosome entry sites (IRES)
D. Hsp mRNAs are abundant during heat shock and thus they
compete
out other mRNAs for ribosome binding and translation.
Which of the following sets is correct?
1. A and D
2. B and C
3. C and D
4. A and D
88. Bacteriophage λ is a temperate bacteriophage and has
two modes
in its life cycle, lysogenic and lytic. Several genes are
involved in these
two processes like N, cI, cII, cIII, Q, int, xis,
etc.
Which one of the following diagrams represents the control
mechanism correctly? (Answer 1)
89. Clearance of phagocytosed intracellular parasite like Leishmania
requires the involvement of reactive oxygen species (ROS)
and reactive
nitrogen species (RNS). Administration of IFN-γ to
macrophages
harbouring an intracellular pathogen leads to the
production of ROS
and RNS by JAK/STAT pathway. A macrophage cell line J774
infected
with Leishmania is
given the following treatments.
A. IFN- γ
B. IFN- γ +AMT, a potent iNOS inhibitor.
C. IFN- γ + apocyanin, a NADPH oxidase inhibitor.
D. IFN- γ + NMMA (N-monomethyl arginine), an arginine
analogue.
What will be the most appropriate graph showing the
survival of
parasites after these treatments? (Answer 2)
90. A ligand recognizes two different cell surface
receptors, A and B, on the same cell type. Receptor A, after binding with the
ligand is internalized along with the ligand whereas receptor B, after binding with
the ligand, initiates tyrosine kinase activity of the intracellular domain. One
particular disease is associated with the loss of receptormediated signal
transduction of the ligand. Different observers inferred that the disease may
be resulted due to
A. loss of binding affinity of receptor A due to mutation
in the extracellular domain.
B. loss of binding affinity of receptor B due to mutation
in the extracellular domain.
C. mutation in the tyrosine kinase domain rendering it inactive.
D. mutation in the intracellular domain rendering it
incapable of endocytosis.
Which combination of the above inferences do you think is
appropriate for the cause of the disease?
1. A and B
2. B and C
3. C and D
4. A and D
91. Vascular endothelial (VE)-cadherin is an important
cell adhesion molecule for endothelial cells. Endothelial cells that are unable
to express VE-cadherin still can adhere to one another via
N-cadherin (neural cadherin), but these cells do not
survive.
Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for
this?
1. N-cadherin uses VE-cadherin as co-receptor for
adhesion.
2. VE-cadherin acts as
co-receptor for VEGF (vascular endothelial
growth factor) mediated signal
transduction in endothelial cells.
3. VE-cadherin is important for desmosome formation and
interaction of intermediate filaments.
4. Loss of VE-cadherin impairs Ca2+ homeostasis
of vascular endothelial
cells leading to their death.
92. An important role of Fas and mediate elimination of
tumor cells by
killer lymphocytes. In a study of 35 primary lung and
colon tumors, half
the tumors were found to have amplified and overexpressed
a gene for
a "secreted protein" that binds to Fas ligand.
The main reason for survival of these tumor cells by this
"secreted Fas- ligand binding
protein" may be attributed to its
1. decoy receptor activity.
2. anti-proliferative activity.
3. cellular defense activity against cytotoxic killing.
4. anti-contact inhibition activity.
93. A BALB/c mouse was thymectomized on the first day
after birth
(mouse 1) whereas another was thymectomized on day 7 after
birth
(mouse 2). A third mouse underwent the same operation on
day 21
after birth. After 56 days, sera were prepared from these
mice and also
from control mice, which had sham operation. The sera were
checked
for anti-DNA antibodies.
Which one of the
following observations is the most plausible?
1. Both mouse 1 and mouse 2 had
anti-DNA antibodies but mouse
3 did not have anti-DNA
antibodies.
2. Only mouse 1 had anti-DNA antibodies.
3. Only mouse 3 had anti-DNA antibodies.
4. Only the control mice had anti-DNA antibodies.
94. A potentially valuable therapeutic approach for
killing tumour cells without affecting normal cells is the use of immunotoxins.
Immunotoxins consist of particular cell-specific monoclonal antibodies coupled
to lethal toxins. Which of the following molecular approaches is NOT
appropriate for killing tumor-cells?
1. Cell surface receptor binding polypeptide chain of
toxin molecules should be replaced by monoclonal antibodies which are specific
for a particular tumor cell.
2. Constant region Fc domain of tumor cell-specific
monoclonal antibody should be replaced by toxin molecules.
3. Variable region F(ab) domain
of tumor cell-specific monoclonal antibody should be replaced by toxin
molecules.
4. Inhibitor polypeptide chain of toxin molecules should
be conjugated to the F(ab) domain of monoclonal antibody tumor-specific monoclonal
antibodies.
95. A set of experiments that were carried out to
demonstrate the effect of Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER) of the chick limb bud
on the underlying mesenchyme are enlisted below, along with their expected outcomes:
A. Removal of the AER of forelimb leads to cessation of
limb development.
B. If an extra AER is placed in the forelimb bud,
duplication of the distal region of the wing takes place.
C. If an extra AER is placed in the forelimb bud, a leg
develops instead of a wing.
D. If AER of forelimb bud is replaced with beads soaked in
FGF2, a normal wing develops.
E. If a non limb mesenchyme is placed below an AER, the
AER directs the mesenchyme to form a normal wing.
Which of the above statements are correct?
l. A, C and E
2. C, D and E
3. B, D and E
4. A, B and D
96. Hensen's node is established as the avian equivalent
of the amphibian dorsal blastopore lip. The following observations are presumed
to be support of the same.
A. It is the region whose cells induce and pattern a
second embryonic axis when transplanted into other locations of the gastrula.
B. It is equivalent in terms of tissue structure.
C. It expresses the same marker genes as the Spemann's
organizer in Amphibians.
D. The same micro RNA can interfere with the formation of
pre-chordal plate in both Hensen's node and Spemann's organizer.
Choose the correct set
among the following:
1. A and D
2. A and C
3. B and C
4. A and B
97. In Amphibians, when due to some injury, the eye lens
is damaged,
the fully differentiated iris cells can regenerate the
lens. It is achieved
through the possible processes:
A. Iris cells through some signaling undergo
dedifferentiation and
transdifferentiation into lens cells to regenerate the
lens.
B. Iris cells transform into lens cells spontaneously.
C. Iris cells induce in a stepwise manner, specific genes
responsible for
their dedifferentiation and then conversion to lens cells.
D. Stem cells present in iris tissue differentiate into
lens cells.
Which of the following is
correct?
l. A and B
2. A and C
3. B and D
4. B and C
98. The control of flowering is a complex process
involving several key regulatory genes. Some statements on flower development
are given below:
A. Two major types of genes regulate floral development:
meristem identity genes and floral organ identity genes.
B. The important genes in Arabidopsis that play key
regulatory roles in meristem identity are: APETALA1, LEAFY and SUPPRESSOR OF CONSTANS1.
C. The genes that determine floral organ identity were
discovered as floral homeotic mutants.
D. Most plant homeotic genes belong to a class of related
sequences known as FAD box genes.
Which one of the following
combinations of the above statements is
correct?
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A, B and D
99. A few statements on early developmental stages in
plants are given
below:
A. The cells of flower are diploid in nature.
B. Only some specialized cells in reproductive organs
undergo meiosis
produce haploid cells.
C. The haploid cells produced in (B) above, undergo a few
normal
mitotic cell divisions.
D. All the progeny cells produced in (B) above,
differentiate either into
haploid egg cells or into haploid sperm cells.
Which one of the following
combinations of t above statements is
correct?
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A, Band D
100. Cells from an early frog blastula were remove from
the animal
pole and used to replace cells fror the vegetal pole of
the blastula. The
following events may be expected.
A. Transplanted cells would develop normally as part of
the cells of the vegetal pole.
B. Transplanted cells would develop as cells of the animal
pole of the adult on the vegetal pole.
C. Region of the animal pole from where the cells were
removed would be missing in the adult.
D. Remaining cells in the animal pole would compensate for
the cells that were removed.
Which of the following are
true?
1. B, C and D
2. A, B and D
3. A, B and C
4. A, C and D
101. Capacitation of mammalian sperms allows them to be
activated within the uterus and facilitate fertilization. The following
statements were made regarding events occurring during capacitation:
A. removal of cholesterol from sperm head.
B. Removal of non-covalently bound glycoproteins.
C. Increased expression of fibronectin.
D. Decreased permeability of calcium ions.
Identify the correct
statements:
1. B, C and D
2. A, B and D
3. A, B and C
4. A, C and D
102. Asada-Halliwell pathway protects plants against
oxidative stress
during unfavorable environmental growth regimes. The
following are
some statements related to the stress-tolerance mechanism
through
this pathway in plants.
A. Oxygen accepts electrons as an alternative electron
acceptor.
B. Hydrogen peroxide is reduced by catalase to form water.
C. Ascorbate is oxidized and regenerated.
D. Glutathione is oxidized and reduced.
Which one of the following
combinations of the above statements is true?
1. B, C and D
2. A, B and C
3. A, B and D
4. A, C and D
103. The following are certain facts regarding biological nitrogen
fixation in plants:
A. Oxygen irreversibly inactivates nitrogenase enzyme involved
in nitrogen fixation.
B. The nod genes that code for nodulation proteins are
activated by NodD
C. The two components of nitrogenase enzyme complex, the
Fe protein and MoFe protein, can show catalytic activity independently.
D. During the reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase enzyme,
the Fe protein reduces the MoFe protein while the MoFe protein reduces N2.
Which one of the following
combination of the above statements is
correct?
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A, B and D
104. Secondary metabolites are diverse array of organic
compounds in plants. The following are certain statements about secondary metabolites:
A. They protect plants against being eaten by herbivores
and against
being infected by microbial pathogens.
B. Terpenes, the largest class of secondary metabolites
are synthesized
by methyl erythritol phosphate(MEP) pathway and shikimic
acid
pathway.
C. The most abundant classes of phenolic compounds in
plants are
derived from phenylalanine.
D. Alkaloids are nitrogen containing secondary metabolites
in plants.
Which one of the following combinations of the above
statements is
correct?
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A, B and D
105. The following are some statements about long distance
translocation of photoassimilates in higher plants:
A. Sugars are translocated in the phloem by mass transfer
along a
hydrostatic pressure.
B. Gibberellic acid stimulates the unloading of sugars
from phloem
tissue into apoplasts.
C. Munch pressure-flow hypothesis is crucial to drive
translocation in
the phloem.
D. Allocation and partition of carbon within a source leaf
determine the
phloem loading phenomenon.
Which one of the following
combinations of the above statements is true?
1. A, B and D
2. A, B and C
3. A, C and D
4. B, C and D
106. Directional growth of plants induced by light is
called phototropism.
Some statements on
phototropism are given below:
A. Phototropism is a photomorphogenetic response.
B. PHOT1 and PHOT2 genes mediate phototropism.
C. CRY1 and CRY2 genes although help to perceive blue
light are not involved in phototropism.
D. Perception of blue light by phyA photoreceptor
initiates phototropism.
Which one of the following combination of the above statements
is
correct?
1. A, B, and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A, B and D
107. Plants make several hormones that are important for
growth and development. Some statements on plant hormones are given below:
A. Auxin is produced primarily in the root apices
B. Cytokinins are a smaller group of related compounds.
C. Gibberellins are a large group of related compounds
defined not by their biological functions but by their structures.
D. Brassinosteroids are an important class of plant
hormones, which control a broad spectrum of developmental reposes including
pollen tube growth.
Which one of the following combination of the above
statements is
correct?
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A, B and D
108. An action potential was generated on a nerve fibre by
a threshold electrical stimulus. When a second stimulus was applied, no matter how
strong it was, during the absolute refractory period of the action potential,
the nerve fibre was unable to generate second action potential. This
observation was explained in the following statements:
A. A large fraction of potassium channel was voltage
inactivated
B. The critical number of sodium channels required to
produce an action potential could not be recruited.
C. A large fraction of sodium channel was voltage
inactivated.
D. The critical number of potassium channels required to produce
an action potential could not be recruited.
Which one of the following is true?
1. Only A
2. A and B
3. Only C
4. C and D
109. Water and electrolytes like Na+ and
cl- are lost from the body in
diarrhoea. Oral administration of NaCl solution in this
condition does
not improve the situation. When glucose is administered
with normal
NaCl solution through oral route, the absorption of
electrolytes along
with water occurs and the patient recovers.
A. Glucose enhances ATP production in the mucosal cells of
small intestine and thus facilitates
sodium absorption.
B. Glucose inhibits the diarrheal toxin induced cAMP
production in the mucosal cells of small intestine.
C. Na+
is co-transported with glucose on the
apical surface of the mucosal cells of small intestine.
D. The epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) are activated by
glucose in colon.
Which one of the following is true?
1. Only A
2. A and B
3. Only C
4. C and D
110. A patient has episodes of painful spontaneous muscles
contraction, followed by periods of paralysis of the affected muscles. It was
identified as primary hyperkalemic paralysis, an inherited
disorder. The possible causes of the paralysis are
A. The elevation of extracellular K+ causes
hyperpolarization of skeletal muscle cells.
B. The hyperpolarization of the muscle cell membrane
inactivates sodium channels.
C. The elevation of extracellular K+ causes
depolarization of skeletal muscle cells.
D. The sodium channels are voltage inactivated in
depolarized state
Which one of the following is true?
1. Only A
2. A and B
3. Only C
4. C and D
111. Myoglobin (Mb) in muscles, Hemoglobin A (HbA) in
adult RaC, Hemoglobin C (HbC) in patients with thinner RBC and Hemoglobin S (HbS)
in sickle cell disease are four different hemoproteins. Oxygen saturation
kinetics of these four proteins is different. Which of the following profile is
most plausible?
Answer 1
112. Maintaining the salt concentration and volume plasma
are two
key parameters for physiological processes achieved by
kidney. Which
of following structural and functional combines the most
efficient renal
regulatory system mammals?
113. Which one of the following graphs best represents the
hormone
profile in a rat right after matting? (Answer 4)
114. Which of the following representations of chromosomal
arrangement in meiotic metaphase I best explains the Law
of
Independent Assortment? (Answer 1)
115. Which of the following statements are true Robertsonian
translocations?
A. The size of the homologous chromosome involved in
translocation will differ.
B. Genes on the chromosome involved in translocation will
show
linkage with genes with which it normal independently
assorts.
C. There will be change in the physical map, but no change
in the
genetic map.
D. It can be identified by G-banding chromosomes.
E. It can be identified by C-banding chromosomes.
F. It can lead to Down syndrome
Which one of the following combination is correct?
1. A, C and D
2. A, D and F
3. A, B, D and F
4. A, C, E and F
116. Ames test is used to evaluate mutagens in the
environment. Which
of the following statements, about Ames test are true?
A. The mutagenic effect of a compound tested using an
auxotrophic
strain of Salmonella typhimurium
B. The mutagenic effect of a compound is tested using His
strain of
Escherichia coli.
C. Using appropriate strains, compounds causing base
substitutions
and frame shift
D. Liver enzymes are important as they are activated by
test compound
to evaluate its mutagenicity potential.
E. Many compounds may have to be converted to bioactive
metabolites,
which is carried out by the enzymes from the liver
1. A, C and D
2. A, B and D
3. A, C and E
4. A and E only
117. The genetic map of three genes in Drosophila melanogaster is
given below:
Select the set which shows the correct number of expected
progeny.
(Answer 2)
118. The following pedigree shows the inheritance pattern
of a rare recessive disorder with complete penetrance.
A child from marriage between individuals II-2 & II-3
will show the
disorder only if the parents carry the recessive allele.
What is the probability that the child will show the
disorder?
1. 1/9, and the probability of
the parents carry the recessive allele is 2/3.
2. 1/4, and the probability of the parents carry the
recessive allele is 3/4.
3. 1/16, and the probability of the parents carry the
recessive allele is 2/3.
4. 1/64, and the probability of the parents carry the
recessive allele is 3/4.
119. DNA from a strain of bacteria with genotype a+ b+ c+ d+ e + was isolated and used to transform a strain of bacteria
that was a- b-
c- d- e-.
The transformed eel were tested for the presence of
donated genes.
The following genes are found be co-transformed
i. a+
and d+
ii. b+
and e+
iii. c+
and d+
iv. c+
and e+
The order of genes on the bacterial chromosome is
1. a-b-c-d-e
2. a-d-c-e-b
3. a-c-d-e-b
4. a-d-b-e-c
120. Coelomates have
A. fluid filled body cavity.
B. a complete lining called peritoneum, derived from
mesoderm
covering the body cavity.
C. a complete lining called peritoneum, derived from
ectoderm
covering the body cavity.
D. Round worm as representative of this group.
E. Flat worm as representative of this group.
Select the correct combination
1. A, C and D
2. A, C and E
3. A, B and D
4. A and B
121. Most biologists agree that seaweeds are protists.
Some biologists think that at least some seaweeds should be considered plants,
not protists. Which of the following would support the latter one?
1. Certain seaweeds contain
several kinds of specialised cells.
2. Certain seaweeds have multicellular organization.
3. Certain seaweeds are found to be prokaryotic.
4. Certain seaweeds undergo sexual and asexual
reproduction.
122. Which of following shows the correct systematic
hierarchy?
1. Kingdom à Phylum à Subphylum à Superclass à Class Ã
Subclass à Cohort à Order à Suborder à Super familyà Family
à Subfamily à Genus à Subgenus à Species à Subspecies
2. Kingdom à Phylum à Subphylum à Cohort à Superclass à Classà Subclass à Superfamily à Family à Subfamily à Order à Suborder à Genus à Subgenus à Species à Subspecies
3. Kingdom à Phylum à Class à Order à Cohort à Family à Genusà Species
4. Kingdom à Phylum à Class à Cohort à Family à Order à Genusà Species
123. Match the following:
1. A-iv, B - iii, C - ii, D – i
2. A-iii, B-i, C-,iv, D-ii
3. A-i, B - ii, C - iii, D – iv
4. A-ii, B - iv, C - i, D – iii
124. In the following diagram, two models succession are
represented. In this diagram A, C and D are species and arrows indicate
replaced by'
Based on the above, which statement is correct.
1. Fig.(i) represents
facilitation and Fig.(ii) represents tolerance
model
2. Fig.(i) represents tolerance model Fig. (ii) represents
facilitation model
3. Fig.(i) represents facilitation m and Fig.(ii)
represents inhibition
model
4. Fig.(i) represents tolerance model Fig.(ii) represents
inhibition
model
125. Lindeman's efficiency between trophic levels is
depicted by the formula: Efficiency = A/B
Where, A and B, respectively are:
1. 'assimilation at trophic
level n' and 'assimilation at trophic level n - 1'
2. 'intake at trophic level n' and 'assimilation at
trophic level n-1'
3. 'assimilation at trophic level n' and 'net productivity
at trophic level n - 1'
4. 'intake at trophic level n' and productivity at trophic
level n - 1'
126. The following matrix shows the relationship between
probability
of death and duration of species association.
In the above, A, B, C and D are:
1. A - Parasites, B =
Parasitoids, C - Grazers, D - Predators
2. A - Carnivores, B = Herbivores, C- Parasites, D -
Parasitoids
3. A - Grazers, B = Parasites, C - Herbivores, D -
Parasitoids
4. A - Predators, B = Parasitoids, C - Parasites, D -
Carnivores
127. An observation was made on a species experiencing
three factors
A, B and C in order to infer a density dependent
population regulation
by a factor. The following graph shows the relationship
between the
adverse effect of the factors in terms of number and
population
density.
Based on the above observation, which of the following is
correct?
1. A - Density independent; B = Density dependent; C –
Inversely density dependent
2. A - Inversely density dependent; B- Density
independent; C – Density dependent
3. A - Density dependent; B = Inversely density independent;
C -Density independent
4. A - Density dependent; B =
Density independent; C – Inversely density dependent
128. Which of the following biotic provinces are part of
Deccan Peninsula biogeographic zone of India?
1. Malabar Coast, Western Plateau, Eastern Plateau
2. Western Ghats, Central Plateau, Eastern Plateau
3. Central Plateau, Eastern
Plateau, chhota Nagapur
4. Central Plateau, Malabar Coast, Western Ghats
129. Which one of the following plants group combinations
reflects the correct increasing order of the number of species it has?
1. Gymnosperms, Bryophytes,
Algae, Angiosperms
2. Angiosperms, Algae, Fungi
3. Algae, Bryophytes, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms
4. Angiosperms, Gymnosperms, Bryophytes, Algae
130. Micro-evolution is the term used for changes in
allele frequencies
that occur over time.
A) Within a population at species level
B) within a community at genus level
C) due to appearance of new genes infections
D) due to mutation, natural selection, flow and genetic
drift
Which of the following combinations is NOT appropriate?
l. A and C
2. A and D
3. B and C
4. B and D
131. The following genotypes were observed in a population
Genotype Number
HH 90
Hh 60
hh 50
Which of the following is the correct frequency of H
allele and what will
be the expected number of HH in the given population?
1. 0.60 and 72
2. 0.80 and 96
3. 0.50 and 32
4. 0.30 and 90
132. The first vertebrate animal appeared in which of the
following
geological ages?
A) Paleozoic era B) Mesozoic era
C) Ordovician period D) Cretaceous period
E) Mississippian epoch F) Paleocene epoch
Which of the following combinations give the best answer?
1. A, C and F
2. A and F
3. B, D and E
4. A and C
133. Fore limb of human and flippers of whale are
embryologically homologous structures. What does the study of homologous
structures tell us about evolution?
A. This is the example of adaptive radiation, occurred due
to similar group of organisms inhabiting different environments
B. This is the example of divergent evolution, occurred due
to similar group of organisms inhabiting different environments
C. Similar group of organisms with mutations and
variations getting naturally selected in different environments
D. This is the example of convergent evolution, occurred
due to similar group of organisms inhabiting different environments
Which of the following is the correct combination?
1. A, B and C
2. A and D
3. B and D
4. Only D
134. Foster pups were presented to a primiparous rat at
the mid gestation period. Which of the following behaviour will be found in the
pregnant rat?
1. The rat shows maternal
behaviour after few days of presentation of pups.
2. The rat attacks and kills the pups time they are
presented.
3. The rat rejects the pups after repeated presentation.
4. The rat shows fear response for a days.
135. Electrons are transferred from reduced c enzymes like
NADH, NADPH to pyruvic acid its derivatives during fermentation. Those fin electron
acceptors are reduced to the end-product for example latic acid, propionic
acid, etc. end products depend on the particular microorganism and the
substrate
Organism End
product (s)
A Streptococcus a.
Butanediol, formic acid
B Clostridium b.
Lactic acid
C Salmonella c.
Butyric acid and iso proanol
D Enterobacter d.
Succinic acid, acetic acid
The correct match is
1. A - a, B - b, C - c, D – d
2. A - d, B - c, C - a, D -c
3. A - b, B - c, C - d, D - a
4. A - c, B - d, C - a, D – b
136. In resting cells, proteins X and Y are localized in
the cytosol. Upon stimulation with lipopolysaccharide (LPS), both of them are phosphorylated
and translocate to the nucleus. You have used antibodies against phosphorylated
forms of proteins X and Y which are conjugated to either red, or green or blue
dye. Keeping optical aberration of light in mind, which one of the following
will be the best for visualizing X and Y In the nucleus by fluorescence
microscopy?
1. Anti green X and anti red Y
2. Anti red X and anti green Y
3. Anti red X and anti blue Y
4. Anti blue X and anti green Y
137. A transgenic plant is developed with the following
T-DNA construct
In order to analyze the nature of integration, genomic DNA
digested with EcoRI was used for Southern hybridization using either probe A or
B. The result obtained is as
The following conclusions were made:
A. There are two copies of the T-DNA cassette integrated
at one loci and a third copy at another loci.
B. There are two copies of the T-DNA cassette integrated
at one loci.
C. Complete T-DNA cassette has been integrated in all
cases.
D. In one T-DNA cassette there is a truncation towards the
RB
E. In one T-DNA cassette there is a towards the LB
F. The arrangement of the T-DNA cassettes integrated at
the same loci is
G. The arrangement of the T-DNA cassette integrated at the
same loci is
Which of the above are correct?
1. B, E and G
2. B, D and F
3. A, D and F
4. B, C and F
138. While designing an experiment for Agrobacterium mediated plant transformation, a student noted down the
following points:
A. Ti and Ri plasmids induce crown gall and hairy root
disease, respectively
B. Enzymes octopine synthase and nopaline synthase
involved in the synthesis of octopine and nopaline, respectively are encoded by
T-DNA.
C. All the six vir genes, vir A, vir B, vir C, vir D, vir
E and vir G are absolutely required for virulence.
D. Almost perfect 25 bp direct repeat sequences flanking
all Ti and Ri plasmids in the T-DNA region is essential for T-DNA transfer.
Which one of the following combinations of the above
statement is correct?
1. A, B and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D
4. A, B and D
139. The following are certain facts regarding
bioremediation:
A. Biodegradable plastics are made using polyhydroxy
alkanoates (PHAs) such as polyhydroxybutyrate (PHB).
B. Pseudomonas putida F1 bacterial strain is involved in degradation
of aromatic hydrocarbon.
C. The bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans consume
and digest toluene and ionic mercury from highly radioactive nuclear waste.
D. Bioaugmentation is a process of improving the
microorganisms already existing in the system for degradation of xenobiotic
compound.
Which one of the following combination of above statements
is correct?
1. A, B and C
2. A, B and D
3. A, C and D
4. B, C and D
140. An unknown peptide was isolated from the leaf of a
medicinal plant and purified to homogeneity. The peptide did not yield any sequence
when subjected to Edman degradation. However, tryptic digest of the peptide
produced a unique sequence. The mass of the intact peptide was found to be 18
Da less than that obtained from the trypsin treated sample. The possible
interpretation of the above experimental results could be that the
A. the N-terminus of the peptide was blocked by
acetylation or methylation.
B. the peptide was cyclic and contained at least one internal
arginine or lysine residue.
C. the peptide was cyclic and contained a lysine or
arginine residue at the C terminus.
D. the peptide was cyclized by peptide bond formation
between α- amino group and α-carboxyl group.
Which of the above statements is true?
1. A and D 2. A and B
3. B and C 4. B and D
141. A gene is regulated by a novel transcription factor.
The following techniques may be used to identify the cis- regulatory element in
the 1 kb promoter sequence of the gene where the novel transcription factor binds:
A. Bioinformatics analysis.
B. Cell based reporter assay.
C. S 1 nuclease assay
D. Electrophoretic mobility shift assay.
E. DNAse-I foot-printing analysis
Which one of the following can help to identify the cis
element?
1. A and B 2. C and E
3. D only 4. E only
142. A protein D is encoded by a gene, which is 5 Kb long
and has three Hind III restriction enzyme sites. The first one is 0.5 Kb from
the transcription start site, the second one is 2.5 Kb from the first site and the
third one is 0.5 Kb internal to the stop codon. The second site is polymorphic.
In order to find out whether fetal cells contain the normal or the mutated
gene, total genomic DNA from fetal cells was isolated, completely digested with
Hind III, separated in an agarose gel, transferred to membrane and detected by
a probe against the region between the second and third restriction site. Which
one of the following band patterns will be obtained if the fetal cell is heterozygous?
(Answer 2)
143. Given below are the experimental protocols to find
out the exact location of repetitive DNA sequence in mitotic chromosome by FISH
(fluorescence in situ hybridization).
Which one of the protocols will give the correct result? (Answer 3)
1. Mitotic chromosomes were fixed on glass slide à incubated
with biotinylated telomeric DNA à denatured à incubated with fluorescently labeled avidin à localization
observed under
fluorescence microscope.
2. Mitotic chromosomes were fixed on glass slide à denatured
à incubated
with FITC labeled unrelated non- repetitive DNA sequence à counterstained
with propidium iodide à localization observed under fluorescence microscope.
3. Mitotic chromosomes were
fixed on glass slide à denatured à incubated with biotinylated satellite DNAà incubated with fluorescently labeled avidin à localization à observed under fluorescence
microscope.
4. mitotic chromosomes were fixed on glass slide à incubated
with repetitive DNA sequence binding protein à denatured à FITC labeled antibody against the protein à localization
observed under fluorescence microscope.
144. At 25°C values of [θ]222, the
mean residue ellipticity at 222 nm, are - 33,000 and -3,000 deg cm2 dmol-1 for
a polypeptide existing in α- helical (α) and β-structure (β), respectively. If
this polypeptide undergoes a two-state heat-induced αà β
transition, and a value of [θ]222
= -18,000 deg cm2 dmol-1 is
observed at 60°C, then this observation leads to the conclusion that the α
helix conversion to β-structure is:
1. 40%
2. 50%
3. 55%
4. 60%
145. An EEG was recorded and its power spectrum analyses
were done in rats with implant electrode for a long time. The power of the EEG waves
decreased two months after electrode implantation.
This observation may be due to the following:
A. Glial cells accumulate surrounding exposed tips of
electrodes.
B. Degeneration of neurons occur surrounding the electrode
tips due metal ion deposition.
C. Coating of electrodes are destroyed with time.
D. The microsocket becomes loose time.
Which one of the following is true?
1. Only A
2. A and B
3. Only C
4. C and D
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