Saturday, 8 March 2014

CSIR Lifesciences December 2013 part B solved

PART B SOLVED

21. The interaction energy between atom A and B is 400 k/mol-1. The
type of interaction between them is

1. pi - pi.
2. covalent.
3. ion-dipole.
4. hydrogen bond.

22. Which one of the following bases has the largest hydrogen bonding
possibility?

1. Adenine
2. Guanine
3. Cytosine
4. Uracil

23. Enzymes help to lower the activation energies of reactions by
1. covalent interaction with substrates.
2. binding only with the solvent molecules.
3. changing reaction equilibria.
4. forming weak interactions with substrates.

24. Glucose residues in amylose are linked by
1. β1->4
2. α1-> 4
3. α1-> 6
4. β1-> 6

25. When a membrane is depolarized to a voltage value more positive
than the threshold voltage, it leads to the generation of

1. Donnan potential.
2. Action potential.
3. resting potential.
4. electrochemical potential.

26. E. coli proliferates faster on 'glucose' than it does on 'lactose'
because lactose is

1. taken up more slowly than glucose
2. not hydrolyzed by E. coli.
3. taken up faster than glucose.
4. toxic to the cells.

27. Out of the list given below, which is the correct order of increasing
lipid bilayer permeability?

1. N2 > Ethanol> H2O> Glucose> Ca+2 > RNA
2. H2O> Glucose> Ethanol> N2 > Ca+2 > RNA
3. Ca+2 > RNA > N2 > Ethanol > H2O > Glucose
4. Ethanol> RNA > Ca+2 > H2O> Glucose >N2

28. In the lysogenic λ-phage
1. both CI and Cro are on.
2. both CI and Cro are off
3. CI is on while Cro is off.
4. CI is off while Cro is on.

29 In bacteria chromosomal DNA replication stops at
1. one specific locus.
2. several specific loci.
3. a single locus, randomly.
4. from several loci, randomly.

30 The 'Uvr ABC' repair mechanism is involved in repairing
1. missing bases.
2. strand break.
3. cross linked strands.
4. DNA damage caused by "bulky" chemical adducts.

31. Which of the following phenomena is observed in compatible plantpathogen
interactions?

1. Virulence in pathogen.
2. Hypersensitive response in host.
3. Resistance in host.
4. Avirulence in pathogen.

32. Which one of the following is NOT an extracellular matrix protein?
1. Fibronectin
2. Vitronectin
3. Laminin
4. Cyclin

33. The cylindrical channels in gap junctions are made of
1. connexin.
2. collagen.
3. fibronectin.
4. N-CAM.

34. A tumour suppressor protein
1. is one whose function brings about regression of a tumour
2. one where mutations are shown to cause or are associated with tumours.
3. is inactivated by oncogenes.
4. inhibits the progression of the cell cycle by phosphorylating cyclins.

35. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are associated with
1. IgG
2. lgE
3.lgM
4.lgA

36. The change in the state of specification of imaginal disc of
Drosophila to that of a different disc type is known as

1. transdetermination
2. transdifferentiation
3. transformation
4. transduction

37. During double fertilization in plants, one sperm fuses with the egg
cell and the other sperm fuses with

1. synergid cell.
2. central cell.
3. antipodal cell
4. nucellar cell.

38. Over-expression of a dominant negative FGF receptor during
amphibian development would prevent formation of

1. trunk and tail.
2. head and trunks.
3. trunk and fore limbs.
4. head and forelimbs.

39. The cell death pathway in C. elegans can be schematically
represented as:

ced9 ⊣ ced4 -> ced3
Based on the above, which one of the following statements is TRUE?

1. A loss-of-function allele of ced9 would lead to survival of cells that
normally die.
2. A loss-of function allele of ced9 would lead to excessive cell
death.
3. A gain-of-function allele of ced9 would lead to excessive cell death.
4. Neither loss or gain-of-function of ced9 would make any change to
the cell death pathway.

40. Which of the following mechanisms is NOT involved in providing
photo protection to plants?

1. Degradation of D1 protein.
2. Zeaxanthin formation.
3. Photolysis of water.
4. Thermal dissipation.

41. Which of the following plant hormones can mimic the det1
mutation, causing de-etiolation and chloroplast development in dark?

1. Cytokinin
2. Gibberellin
3. Auxin
4. Ethylene

42. Under which conditions do members of the family Gramineae
synthesize and release phytosiderophores?

1. Iron deficiency.
2. Phosphorus deficiency.
3. Availability of iron complexes in rhizosphere.
4. Availability of phosphorus complexes in rhizosphere.

43. The membranes of chilling-sensitive plants is characterized by
1. high proportion of saturated fatty acids
2. lower transition temperature
3. lower proportion of saturated fatty acids
4. lower transition temperature and higher proportion of unsaturated
fatty acids

44. The only bone marrow cell that never appears in peripheral blood
is

1. myeloblast
2. myelocyte.
3. lymphoblast.
4. megaloblast.

45. Various types of excitable tissues when stimulated showed
response as shown in the  figures. 

 
Which one of them is an
example of fast adapting tissue?

1. A.
2. B
3. C.
4. D.

46. After gull nestlings hatch, the parents remove the egg-shells from
the nest. This behaviour is to

1. clean the area.
2. reduce infection
3. make more space in the nest.
4. minimise nest detection by predators.

47. Thyroxin releasing hormone (TRH) receptor belongs to
1. nuclear receptor family.
2. receptor tyrosin kinase family
3. G-protein - coupled receptor family.
4. guanylate cyclase receptor family.

48. A cross is made between a pure breeding plant having red coloured
flowers with a pure breeding plant having white coloured flowers. Such
a cross is called as

1. test cross.
2. monohybrid cross.
3. dihybrid cross.
4. back cross.

49. A cis-trans complementation test is carried out to identify
1. if two mutations are allelic in nature.
2. if two genes interact with one another.
3. the number of genes influencing phenotype.
4. to understand the dominance/recessive relationships between
alleles.

50. The following is the inheritance pattern of a trait under
observation:
(i) The trait often skips a generation
(ii)The number of affected males and females is almost equal
(iii) The trait is often found in pedigrees with consanguineous
marriages.

The trait is likely to be
1. autosomal recessive.
2. autosomal dominant.
3. sex-linked recessive.
4. sex-linked dominant.

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