1. The highest concentration of cystine can be found in
(A) Myosin
(B) Keratin
(C) Collagen
(D) Spectrin
2. A membrane bound enzyme that catalyses
the formation of cAMP from ATP is
(A) MAP Kinase
(B) Receptor Kinase
(C) ATP phosphorylase
(D) Adenyl cyclase
3. Assertion (A) : Quarum sensing is the ability of bacteria to communicate and coordinate behaviour.
Reason (R) : Bacteria those use Quarum sensing to producer and secrete a signaling chemical called
as “Inducer”.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is the false explanation
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
4. Assertion (A) : Interferons are produced by the host against viral infection.
Reason (R) : Interferons are essential for viral replication.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is the false explanation
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
5. Chylomicrons, Intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL), Low density Lipoproteins (LDL) and very low density Lipoproteins all are serum Lipoproteins.
What is correct ordering of these particles from the lowest to the greatest density ?
(A) LDL, IDL, VLDL, Chylomicra
(B) Chylomicra, VLDL, IDL, LDL
(C) VLDL, IDL, LDL, Chylomicra
(D) Chylomicra, IDL, VLDL, LDL
6. The sequence of the steps involved in the viral replication
I) Attachment
II) Penetration
III) Genome replication and Expression
IV) Uncoating
Arrange the above steps in chronologically
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) III, II, I, IV
(C) II, III, IV, I
(D) I, II, IV, III
7. In the area of desmosome the adjacent cells have
I) Intercellular thickening material
II) Cilia
III) Transmembrane linkers
IV) Protein sheath
(A) I and IV are correct
(B) II and IV are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) I and III are correct
8. Viruses contain the following
I) Genome
II) Capsid
III) Capsule
IV) Enzyme
(A) I, II, III are correct
(B) I, II, III, IV are correct
(C) I, II, IV are correct
(D) II, III, IV are correct
9. DNA polymerase I are multifunctional enzymes because it promotes
I) Polymerisation reaction
II) Removal of nucleotides from 3′
terminus in DNA
III) Removal of nucleotides from 5′
terminus in DNA
IV) Joining of ends of DNA fragments
(A) I & IV are correct
(B) II & IV are correct
(C) III & IV are correct
(D) I, II & III are correct
10. Most of DNA binding proteins insert the following structure into the major groove of DNA during binding
(A) Beta-sheet
(B) Alpha-helix
(C) Beta-Turn
(D) Triple-helix
11. Coding region of an mRNA is 336 nucleotides long, including the initiator and termination codons. What is the number of amino acids in the protein translated from this mRNA ?
(A) 109
(B) 110
(C) 111
(D) 112
12. Origin of replication in E.coli consists of
I) Repetitive elements
II) GC rich regions
III) AT rich regions
IV) Series of U residues
(A) III is correct
(B) I and III are correct
(C) I, III and IV are correct
(D) IV is correct
13. Bt Cotton contains
(A) dry gene
(B) Cry gene
(C) Nif gene
(D) AmpR gene
14. Choose the correct signal transduction pathway.
(A) Hormone → 7 TM Receptor →G Protein → cAMP → PKA
(B) Hormone → G protein → 7 TM Receptor → cAMP → PKA
(C) Hormone → 7 TM Receptor → G protein → PKA → cAMP
(D) Hormone → 7 TM Receptor → cAMP → G protein → PKA
15. Which of the following can form a part of a Biosensor ?
I) Enzyme
II) Antibody
III) Lipid
IV) Vitamin
(A) III and IV are correct
(B) II and IV are correct
(C) I and II are correct
(D) I, II and III are correct
16. Name the enzyme act as Intracellular mediator for growth factor receptor
(A) MAP Kinases
(B) Phosphodiesterases (PDE)
(C) JAK Kinases
(D) β – adrenergic receptor Kinase (BARK)
17. DNA can be radiolabelled with
I) P32
II) I125
III) P33
IV) S35
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and III are correct
(C) I, III and IV are correct
(D) II and IV are correct
18. Electrophoresis of a purified protein called X in the presence of SDS and beta-Mercaptoethanol shows a single band of 60 KDa. In gel filtration experiment protein X elutes between alcohol dehydrogenase (160 KDa) and beta-amylase (190 KDa).
How many identical subunits in the protein X composed of ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
19. Branched hydrophobic amino acids are
I) Valine
II) Leucine
III) Isoleucine
IV) Threonine
(A) I & IV are correct
(B) I, II & III are correct
(C) I & II are correct
(D) Only I is correct
20. Assertion (A) : Olfaction and taste are important sensory modalities for insects, particularly in mating, oviposition and food selection.
Reason (R) : Chaemo reception in insects is well established than the other animals.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
21. Match the Jaw suspension type in various organisms.
List – I List – II
I) Autodiastylic 1) elasmobranchs
II) Amphistylic 2) mammals
III) Hyostylic 3) bony fishes
IV) Autostylic 4) shark
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 1 3
22. Arrange the transport pigments in the order of evolutionary origin from more recent
(A) Haemoglobin, Myoglobin, Chlorocruorin, Haemocyanin
(B) Myoglobin, Chlorocrcruorin, Haemoglobin, Haemocyanin
(C) Haemocyanin, Chlorocrcruorin, Myoglobin, Haemoglobin
(D) Haemocyanin, Haemoglobin,Myoglobin, Chlorocruorin
23. Match List I (genes) with List II (character) and select the correct answer using thecodes given below the Lists :
List – I List – II
I) Incomplete dominance 1) Human skin colour
II) Codominance 2) Purple colour in maize due to anthocyanin
III) Polygenes 3) Human being belonging to AB blood group
IV) Complementary genes 4) Pink colour in 4 O’ clock plant
Code :
I II III IV
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
24. The cross over percentage between linked genes J and M is 20%, J and L is 35%, J and
N is 70%, L and K is 15%, M and N 50%.
Thus the sequence of genes on the chromosome is
(A) J, N, M, L, K
(B) J, M, L, N, K
(C) J, M, L, K, N
(D) M, J, L, K, N
25. Mammals and birds were originated in which of the following era/epoch/period ?
(A) Jurassic period
(B) Eocene and Oligocene
(C) Carboniferous and permian
(D) All of these
26. The Hardy-Weinberg law is expressed as (p+q)2, where ‘p’ and ‘q’ stands for
(A) Frequency of heterozygotes
(B) Frequency of alleles in population
(C) Gene frequencies in population
(D) Genotype frequencies in population
27. Assertion (A) : Autonomous specification gives rise to a pattern of embryogenesis referred
to as mosaic development. If particular blastomere is removed early in its development, that isolated
blastomere will produce the same type of cells that it would have made if it were still part of the embryo.
Reason (R) : The embryo appears to be constructed like a file mosaic of independent, self differentiating parts.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
28. Assertion (A) : Structures of globular proteins are accurately determined with X-ray diffraction.
Reason (R) : Wave length of X-rays is less than 2°A and the resolution of structural information achievable is around 2°A.
(A) A & R are correct. R is explanation for A
(B) A is false, but R is correct
(C) A is correct, but R is false
(D) Both A and R are false
29. Given below are two statements : Assertion (A) : Foreign genes can be cloned into plasmid
cloning vectors.
Reason (R) : Cloning vectors can be used for expressing the foreign genes in bacterial systems.
Which of these statements is correct ?
(A) Both A and R are correct
(B) Both A and R are wrong
(C) A is correct, R is wrong
(D) A is wrong, R is correct
30. Given below are two statements
Assertion (A) : Plant breeders have an advantage over the animal breeders.
Reason (R) : Plant breeders can employ clonal propagation.
Which of the statements are correct ?
(A) A and R are correct and R is the explanation for A
(B) A and R are correct and R is not the explanation for A
(C) A is wrong, but R is correct
(D) Both A and R are wrong
31. Identify the correct statement
(A) Went’s theory explains the reasons for geotropism
(B) Thigmotropic movements are shown by Desmodium gyrans
(C) Coiling of tendrils around a hard stem are nyctinastic movements
(D) Movements of tentacles of Drosera are chemotropic movements
32. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A), and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Several factors are responsible for seed dormancy. One of the factors is immature
embryo.
Reason (R) : Seed dormancy caused by immature embryo can be overcome by scarification.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) A is correct, R is also correct
(B) A is wrong, R is correct
(C) A is correct, R is wrong
(D) A is wrong and R is also wrong
33. List I consists of some terms and List II includes their corresponding definitions.
Select the code showing correct matching
List – I List – II
(Terms) (Definitions)
I) Photooxidation 1) Influence of duration of day and night on flowering of plants
II) Photoperiodism 2) Splitting of water molecule by light
III) Photolysis 3) Damage of cells under high intensity of light
IV) Photorespiration 4) Respiration in chloroplasts during day time
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 1 2 4
34. The light sensitive plant pigment phytochrome was first isolated by
(A) Borthwick and Coworders
(B) Garner and Allard
(C) Butler and his colleagues
(D) Hammer and Bonner
35. Which one of the following is NOT a correct statement ?
(A) Calcium is a component of chlorophyll
(B) Iron is a structural component of porphyrin molecules
(C) Boron plays an important role in translocation of sugars
(D) Molybdenum plays active role in nitrogen fixation
36. List I consists of some terms and List II includes corresponding definitions. Select the code showing correct matching
List – I List – II
(Terms) (Definitions)
I) Nitrification 1) Conversion of nitrates to gaseous nitrogen
II) Denitrification 2) Conversion of NH3 to NO3
III) Nitrogen fixation 3) Conversion of proteins to ammonia
IV) Ammonification 4) Conversion of gaseous nitrogen to ammonia
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 2 3
37. The following proteins are involved in protein synthesis on ribosomes
1) EF-TU
2) RF1
3) RRF
4) EF-G
5) IF2
What is the sequence of their involvent in the translation process ?
(A) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
(C) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
(D) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
38. Choose the correct sequence of the following tools applied in proteomic
I) MALDI – TOF
II) IEF
III) SDS-PAGE
IV) Isolation of proteins
(A) III, II, I, IV
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) IV, II, III, I
(D) I, III, IV, II
39. Five proteins with the following PI values were separated by isoelectric focusing
1) 3.6
2) 2.9
3) 7.2
4) 6.5
5) 8.5
What is the order of their migration from
the anode (closest to farthest) ?
(A) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
(B) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
(C) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
(D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
40. Match the following :
I) Somaclonal variation 1) Anther culture
II) Haploid culture 2) Suspension culture
III) Protoplast isolation 3) Callus culture
IV) Secondary metabolite 4) Cell wall production degrading enzymes
I II III IV
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
41. Match the items of Column – A with Column – B
Column – A Column – B
I) Plasma Membrane 1) DNA polymerase
II) Nucleus 2) 5’ Nucleotidase
III) Mitochondria 3) Catalase and peroxidase
IV) Microbodies 4) SDH
I II III IV
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
42. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly ?
(A) Production of recombinant protein – Expression vector
(B) Type of molecular marker – YAC
(C) Immunological detection method – ELISA
(D) Measurement of radioactivity –scintillation counting
43. Match the following
I) Allosteric enzyme 1) PDC
II) Isoenzyme 2) Acetyl CoA
III) Multienzyme complex 3) LDH
IV) Coenzyme 4) ATcase
I II III IV
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 3 1
44. Which of the following pairs is matched correctly ?
(A) Protein involved in transcription termination in prokaryotes – RF1
(B) General transcription factor involved in initiation of transcription in eukaryotes – sigma factor
(C) Protein involved in elongation of translation – EF.TU
(D) Enzyme involved in unwinding of DNA helix – Topoisomerase
45. Which of the following pairs is not paired correctly ?
(A) All family of repetitive elements –LINES
(B) Transposons identified in Drosophila– Pelement
(C) Tandemly repeated elements –VNTRs
(D) Mobile elements found in maize –Ac-Ds elements
46. Given below are two statements
Assertion (A) : Aminoacylation of t RNA is a very accurate process.
Reason (R) : Proof reading does not occur during aminoacylation of t RNA by aminoacyl tRNA synthetases.
Which of these statements are true ?
(A) Both A and R are true
(B) A is true, but R is false
(C) Both A and R are false
(D) A is false, but R is true
47. Given below are two statements
Assertion (A) : Lac operon is activated in bacteria by the presence of lactose in the medium.
Reason (R) : Lac operon is not affected by glucose concentration in the medium.
Which of these statements are true ?
(A) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false
48. Assertion (A) : A. Monellin is a sweetner and it is a protein. When it is heated its sweetness
is lost
Reason (R) : The reason for its sweetness lies in its confirmation
(A) A and R are correct
(B) A and R are wrong
(C) A is correct and R is wrong
(D) A is wrong and R is correct
49. In a flower odd sepal is anterior, petals arranged in dessendingly imbricate aestivation. This flowers belong to the family
(A) Fabaceae (s.s.)
(B) Fabaceae (s.e.)
(C) Caesalpiniaceae
(D) Mimosaceae
50. Taxonomy refers to
I) Identification and Nomenclature
II) Nomenclature and classification
III) Classification
IV) Classification and evolution
(A) I & IV
(B) I & II
(C) I & III
(D) II only
51. Assertion (A) : Based on formation of mucilage due to partial dissolution of outer pectin wall in water, spirogyra is also called pond silk.
Reason (R) : In a matured cell of Spirogyra the cytoplasm is peripheral with a central vacuole
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
52. Match the following :
1) Engler I) Chemosystematics
2) Secondary II) Oak metabolite
3) Natural system III) Embryophyta siphanogama
4) Nut IV) Alpha taxonomy
V) Marigold
1 2 3 4
(A) IV I III V
(B) III I IV V
(C) IV I III II
(D) III I IV II
53. Indicate the four correct statements from the following :
I) Cotton is used either alone or in combination with other fibres in manufacturing all types of textiles
II) Cotton seed oil is used as lubricant and the oil cake is used as poultry feed
III) Mercerised cotton is resulted by treating the cotton fibres with caustic soda
IV) The fuzz (short hairs) is used in preparation of pillows, cushions and mattresses
V) Cotton treated with nitric acid to produce gun powder, which is used in making explosives
(A) I, II, III & IV
(B) I, III, IV & V
(C) II, III, IV & V
(D) I, II, IV & V
54. The system of classification proposed by these scientists is also called as Neo- Adansonian system
(A) Engler & Prantl
(B) Bentham & Hooker
(C) Sokal & Sneath
(D) Camp & Gilly
55. Pick up the wrong statement from the following :
(A) The rate of production of total organic material is known as gross primary productivity
(B) The balance energy or biomass remaining after meeting the cost of respiration of producers is called net primary productivity
(C) The productivity is of three kinds : primary, secondary and tertiary
(D) Net productivity = Gross productivity – Respiration and other losses
56. The several stages of hydrosere along with their suitable examples are given.
Indicate the correct matches from them.
I) Plank stage – Diatoms
II) Woodland stage – Juncus
III) Floating stage – Nymphaea
IV) Submerged stage – Hydrilla
V) Reed swamp stage – Sagittaria
(A) I, II, III & IV
(B) I, III, IV & V
(C) II, III, IV & V
(D) I, II, III & V
57. Addition of consortium or cocktail of micro-organisms to the polluted soil is known as
(A) Biostimulation
(B) Biomagnification
(C) Biofencing
(D) Bioaugmentation
58. Match the following :
1) Littoral and swamp I) Savannas forests
2) Montane wet temperate II) Mangroves forests
3) Natural grasslands III) Relics
4) Species show a IV) Sholas restricted distribution but cover large areasin course of time
V) Progressive endemics
1 2 3 4
(A) II IV I V
(B) II IV I III
(C) IV III I V
(D) IV II I III
59. The study of migration of birds is known as
(A) Phrenology
(B) Phenology
(C) Pedology
(D) Odentology
60. Assertion (A) : The Japanese and Philippine lakes are volcanic lakes in which the extreme chemical conditions are seen.
Reason (R) : Acid or alkaline lakes associated with volcanic regions are called volcanic lakes.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
61. If the fertilized egg of a plant has 40 chromo-mes, the number of chromosomes present in the pollen mother cell is
(A) 80
(B) 160
(C) 40
(D) 60
62. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot (polygonum) at the time of fertilization is
(A) 8 nucleate and 7 celled
(B) 7 nucleate and 8 celled
(C) 4 nucleate and 4 celled
(D) 8 nucleate and 8 celled
63. Assertion (A) : In cleodic egg, the development of embryo is arrested in freshly laid eggs
Reason (R) : Freshly laid eggs show drop in temperature so they need incubation
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) (A) is true, but R is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
64. Match the pattern of embryonic cleavage type (in List 1) with organisms (in List 2)
List – 1 List – 2
I) Radial cleavage 1) Echinoderms
II) Spiral cleavage 2) Tunicates
III) Bilateral cleavage 3) Mammals
IV) Rotational cleavage 4) Annelids
Code :
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 4 2 3
65. During differentiation different cell types make different sets of proteins at several levels in following sequences
I) Differential gene transcription
II) Differential RNA translation
III) Differential RNA processing
IV) Differential protein modification
(A) III, II, I and IV
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, III, II and IV
(D) I, IV, II and III
66. If the deleterious effect of a mutation in a gene are overcome by a mutation in another gene, the process is called
(A) Extra genetic (or) intragenic suppression
(B) Non-sense mutation
(C) Frame shift mutation
(D) Somatic mutation
67. Extra chromosomal inheritance of male sterility was discovered in maize by
(A) Dhawan and Paliwal
(B) M.A. Overman and H.E. Warmke
(C) Jones and Clarke
(D) M.M. Rhodes
68. Assertion (A) : Mental and motor retardation and death by ages 2-4 years are phenotypic effects in the individuals of Tay- Sachs disease.
Reason (R) : In the individuals of Tay- Sachs disease galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase fails
to catalyze transformation of galactose into glucose.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
69. Assertion (A) : Adapted characters acquired by an organism are not inherited.
Reason (R) : They do not get the sufficient time to be fixed at the genetic level.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
70. Assertion (A) : Geological evidence indicates that free oxygen began accumulating in the
atmosphere about two billion years ago.
Reason (R) : The free oxygen in the atmosphere is produced by cyanobacteria like forms.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
71. Assertion (A) : The records of evolution of birds is sketchy.
Reason (R) : The pneumatic bones of birds make poor fossils.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
72. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List – I List – II
(Animals) (Their realm)
I) Protopterus 1) Australian
II) Opossum 2) Ethiopian
III) Sphenodon 3) Nearctic
IV) Prehensile 4) Neotropical
tailed monkey
Code :
I II III IV
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 4 3 1 2
73. According to Darwinism which one represents the correct sequence of events in the origin of new species ?
I) Natural selection, Variation and their inheritance-Survival of the fittest, Struggle for existence
II) Variation and their inheritance, Survival of the fittest, Natural selection, struggle for existence
III) Survival of the fittest, Struggle for existence, Natural selection, Variation and their inheritance
IV) Struggle for existence, Variation and their inheritance, Survival of the fittest, Natural selection
The correct sequence of these scales from the earliest to the most recent
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, I, IV
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) IV, II, III, I
74. Enterokinase stimulates
(A) Trypsin
(B) Trypsinogen
(C) Pepsin
(D) Pepsinogen
75. In the detoxification of ammonia, the key intermediate product i.e., the synthesis of citrulline is appeared to be present in the following extra hepatic tissues
I) Brain
II) Intestine
III) Kidney
IV) Lungs
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) I and III are correct
(D) I, III and IV are correct
(A) Myosin
(B) Keratin
(C) Collagen
(D) Spectrin
2. A membrane bound enzyme that catalyses
the formation of cAMP from ATP is
(A) MAP Kinase
(B) Receptor Kinase
(C) ATP phosphorylase
(D) Adenyl cyclase
3. Assertion (A) : Quarum sensing is the ability of bacteria to communicate and coordinate behaviour.
Reason (R) : Bacteria those use Quarum sensing to producer and secrete a signaling chemical called
as “Inducer”.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is the false explanation
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
4. Assertion (A) : Interferons are produced by the host against viral infection.
Reason (R) : Interferons are essential for viral replication.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is the false explanation
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
5. Chylomicrons, Intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL), Low density Lipoproteins (LDL) and very low density Lipoproteins all are serum Lipoproteins.
What is correct ordering of these particles from the lowest to the greatest density ?
(A) LDL, IDL, VLDL, Chylomicra
(B) Chylomicra, VLDL, IDL, LDL
(C) VLDL, IDL, LDL, Chylomicra
(D) Chylomicra, IDL, VLDL, LDL
6. The sequence of the steps involved in the viral replication
I) Attachment
II) Penetration
III) Genome replication and Expression
IV) Uncoating
Arrange the above steps in chronologically
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) III, II, I, IV
(C) II, III, IV, I
(D) I, II, IV, III
7. In the area of desmosome the adjacent cells have
I) Intercellular thickening material
II) Cilia
III) Transmembrane linkers
IV) Protein sheath
(A) I and IV are correct
(B) II and IV are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) I and III are correct
8. Viruses contain the following
I) Genome
II) Capsid
III) Capsule
IV) Enzyme
(A) I, II, III are correct
(B) I, II, III, IV are correct
(C) I, II, IV are correct
(D) II, III, IV are correct
9. DNA polymerase I are multifunctional enzymes because it promotes
I) Polymerisation reaction
II) Removal of nucleotides from 3′
terminus in DNA
III) Removal of nucleotides from 5′
terminus in DNA
IV) Joining of ends of DNA fragments
(A) I & IV are correct
(B) II & IV are correct
(C) III & IV are correct
(D) I, II & III are correct
10. Most of DNA binding proteins insert the following structure into the major groove of DNA during binding
(A) Beta-sheet
(B) Alpha-helix
(C) Beta-Turn
(D) Triple-helix
11. Coding region of an mRNA is 336 nucleotides long, including the initiator and termination codons. What is the number of amino acids in the protein translated from this mRNA ?
(A) 109
(B) 110
(C) 111
(D) 112
12. Origin of replication in E.coli consists of
I) Repetitive elements
II) GC rich regions
III) AT rich regions
IV) Series of U residues
(A) III is correct
(B) I and III are correct
(C) I, III and IV are correct
(D) IV is correct
13. Bt Cotton contains
(A) dry gene
(B) Cry gene
(C) Nif gene
(D) AmpR gene
14. Choose the correct signal transduction pathway.
(A) Hormone → 7 TM Receptor →G Protein → cAMP → PKA
(B) Hormone → G protein → 7 TM Receptor → cAMP → PKA
(C) Hormone → 7 TM Receptor → G protein → PKA → cAMP
(D) Hormone → 7 TM Receptor → cAMP → G protein → PKA
15. Which of the following can form a part of a Biosensor ?
I) Enzyme
II) Antibody
III) Lipid
IV) Vitamin
(A) III and IV are correct
(B) II and IV are correct
(C) I and II are correct
(D) I, II and III are correct
16. Name the enzyme act as Intracellular mediator for growth factor receptor
(A) MAP Kinases
(B) Phosphodiesterases (PDE)
(C) JAK Kinases
(D) β – adrenergic receptor Kinase (BARK)
17. DNA can be radiolabelled with
I) P32
II) I125
III) P33
IV) S35
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and III are correct
(C) I, III and IV are correct
(D) II and IV are correct
18. Electrophoresis of a purified protein called X in the presence of SDS and beta-Mercaptoethanol shows a single band of 60 KDa. In gel filtration experiment protein X elutes between alcohol dehydrogenase (160 KDa) and beta-amylase (190 KDa).
How many identical subunits in the protein X composed of ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
19. Branched hydrophobic amino acids are
I) Valine
II) Leucine
III) Isoleucine
IV) Threonine
(A) I & IV are correct
(B) I, II & III are correct
(C) I & II are correct
(D) Only I is correct
20. Assertion (A) : Olfaction and taste are important sensory modalities for insects, particularly in mating, oviposition and food selection.
Reason (R) : Chaemo reception in insects is well established than the other animals.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
21. Match the Jaw suspension type in various organisms.
List – I List – II
I) Autodiastylic 1) elasmobranchs
II) Amphistylic 2) mammals
III) Hyostylic 3) bony fishes
IV) Autostylic 4) shark
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 1 3
22. Arrange the transport pigments in the order of evolutionary origin from more recent
(A) Haemoglobin, Myoglobin, Chlorocruorin, Haemocyanin
(B) Myoglobin, Chlorocrcruorin, Haemoglobin, Haemocyanin
(C) Haemocyanin, Chlorocrcruorin, Myoglobin, Haemoglobin
(D) Haemocyanin, Haemoglobin,Myoglobin, Chlorocruorin
23. Match List I (genes) with List II (character) and select the correct answer using thecodes given below the Lists :
List – I List – II
I) Incomplete dominance 1) Human skin colour
II) Codominance 2) Purple colour in maize due to anthocyanin
III) Polygenes 3) Human being belonging to AB blood group
IV) Complementary genes 4) Pink colour in 4 O’ clock plant
Code :
I II III IV
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
24. The cross over percentage between linked genes J and M is 20%, J and L is 35%, J and
N is 70%, L and K is 15%, M and N 50%.
Thus the sequence of genes on the chromosome is
(A) J, N, M, L, K
(B) J, M, L, N, K
(C) J, M, L, K, N
(D) M, J, L, K, N
25. Mammals and birds were originated in which of the following era/epoch/period ?
(A) Jurassic period
(B) Eocene and Oligocene
(C) Carboniferous and permian
(D) All of these
26. The Hardy-Weinberg law is expressed as (p+q)2, where ‘p’ and ‘q’ stands for
(A) Frequency of heterozygotes
(B) Frequency of alleles in population
(C) Gene frequencies in population
(D) Genotype frequencies in population
27. Assertion (A) : Autonomous specification gives rise to a pattern of embryogenesis referred
to as mosaic development. If particular blastomere is removed early in its development, that isolated
blastomere will produce the same type of cells that it would have made if it were still part of the embryo.
Reason (R) : The embryo appears to be constructed like a file mosaic of independent, self differentiating parts.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
28. Assertion (A) : Structures of globular proteins are accurately determined with X-ray diffraction.
Reason (R) : Wave length of X-rays is less than 2°A and the resolution of structural information achievable is around 2°A.
(A) A & R are correct. R is explanation for A
(B) A is false, but R is correct
(C) A is correct, but R is false
(D) Both A and R are false
29. Given below are two statements : Assertion (A) : Foreign genes can be cloned into plasmid
cloning vectors.
Reason (R) : Cloning vectors can be used for expressing the foreign genes in bacterial systems.
Which of these statements is correct ?
(A) Both A and R are correct
(B) Both A and R are wrong
(C) A is correct, R is wrong
(D) A is wrong, R is correct
30. Given below are two statements
Assertion (A) : Plant breeders have an advantage over the animal breeders.
Reason (R) : Plant breeders can employ clonal propagation.
Which of the statements are correct ?
(A) A and R are correct and R is the explanation for A
(B) A and R are correct and R is not the explanation for A
(C) A is wrong, but R is correct
(D) Both A and R are wrong
31. Identify the correct statement
(A) Went’s theory explains the reasons for geotropism
(B) Thigmotropic movements are shown by Desmodium gyrans
(C) Coiling of tendrils around a hard stem are nyctinastic movements
(D) Movements of tentacles of Drosera are chemotropic movements
32. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A), and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Several factors are responsible for seed dormancy. One of the factors is immature
embryo.
Reason (R) : Seed dormancy caused by immature embryo can be overcome by scarification.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) A is correct, R is also correct
(B) A is wrong, R is correct
(C) A is correct, R is wrong
(D) A is wrong and R is also wrong
33. List I consists of some terms and List II includes their corresponding definitions.
Select the code showing correct matching
List – I List – II
(Terms) (Definitions)
I) Photooxidation 1) Influence of duration of day and night on flowering of plants
II) Photoperiodism 2) Splitting of water molecule by light
III) Photolysis 3) Damage of cells under high intensity of light
IV) Photorespiration 4) Respiration in chloroplasts during day time
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 1 2 4
34. The light sensitive plant pigment phytochrome was first isolated by
(A) Borthwick and Coworders
(B) Garner and Allard
(C) Butler and his colleagues
(D) Hammer and Bonner
35. Which one of the following is NOT a correct statement ?
(A) Calcium is a component of chlorophyll
(B) Iron is a structural component of porphyrin molecules
(C) Boron plays an important role in translocation of sugars
(D) Molybdenum plays active role in nitrogen fixation
36. List I consists of some terms and List II includes corresponding definitions. Select the code showing correct matching
List – I List – II
(Terms) (Definitions)
I) Nitrification 1) Conversion of nitrates to gaseous nitrogen
II) Denitrification 2) Conversion of NH3 to NO3
III) Nitrogen fixation 3) Conversion of proteins to ammonia
IV) Ammonification 4) Conversion of gaseous nitrogen to ammonia
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 2 3
37. The following proteins are involved in protein synthesis on ribosomes
1) EF-TU
2) RF1
3) RRF
4) EF-G
5) IF2
What is the sequence of their involvent in the translation process ?
(A) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
(C) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
(D) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
38. Choose the correct sequence of the following tools applied in proteomic
I) MALDI – TOF
II) IEF
III) SDS-PAGE
IV) Isolation of proteins
(A) III, II, I, IV
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) IV, II, III, I
(D) I, III, IV, II
39. Five proteins with the following PI values were separated by isoelectric focusing
1) 3.6
2) 2.9
3) 7.2
4) 6.5
5) 8.5
What is the order of their migration from
the anode (closest to farthest) ?
(A) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
(B) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
(C) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
(D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
40. Match the following :
I) Somaclonal variation 1) Anther culture
II) Haploid culture 2) Suspension culture
III) Protoplast isolation 3) Callus culture
IV) Secondary metabolite 4) Cell wall production degrading enzymes
I II III IV
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
41. Match the items of Column – A with Column – B
Column – A Column – B
I) Plasma Membrane 1) DNA polymerase
II) Nucleus 2) 5’ Nucleotidase
III) Mitochondria 3) Catalase and peroxidase
IV) Microbodies 4) SDH
I II III IV
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
42. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly ?
(A) Production of recombinant protein – Expression vector
(B) Type of molecular marker – YAC
(C) Immunological detection method – ELISA
(D) Measurement of radioactivity –scintillation counting
43. Match the following
I) Allosteric enzyme 1) PDC
II) Isoenzyme 2) Acetyl CoA
III) Multienzyme complex 3) LDH
IV) Coenzyme 4) ATcase
I II III IV
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 3 1
44. Which of the following pairs is matched correctly ?
(A) Protein involved in transcription termination in prokaryotes – RF1
(B) General transcription factor involved in initiation of transcription in eukaryotes – sigma factor
(C) Protein involved in elongation of translation – EF.TU
(D) Enzyme involved in unwinding of DNA helix – Topoisomerase
45. Which of the following pairs is not paired correctly ?
(A) All family of repetitive elements –LINES
(B) Transposons identified in Drosophila– Pelement
(C) Tandemly repeated elements –VNTRs
(D) Mobile elements found in maize –Ac-Ds elements
46. Given below are two statements
Assertion (A) : Aminoacylation of t RNA is a very accurate process.
Reason (R) : Proof reading does not occur during aminoacylation of t RNA by aminoacyl tRNA synthetases.
Which of these statements are true ?
(A) Both A and R are true
(B) A is true, but R is false
(C) Both A and R are false
(D) A is false, but R is true
47. Given below are two statements
Assertion (A) : Lac operon is activated in bacteria by the presence of lactose in the medium.
Reason (R) : Lac operon is not affected by glucose concentration in the medium.
Which of these statements are true ?
(A) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false
48. Assertion (A) : A. Monellin is a sweetner and it is a protein. When it is heated its sweetness
is lost
Reason (R) : The reason for its sweetness lies in its confirmation
(A) A and R are correct
(B) A and R are wrong
(C) A is correct and R is wrong
(D) A is wrong and R is correct
49. In a flower odd sepal is anterior, petals arranged in dessendingly imbricate aestivation. This flowers belong to the family
(A) Fabaceae (s.s.)
(B) Fabaceae (s.e.)
(C) Caesalpiniaceae
(D) Mimosaceae
50. Taxonomy refers to
I) Identification and Nomenclature
II) Nomenclature and classification
III) Classification
IV) Classification and evolution
(A) I & IV
(B) I & II
(C) I & III
(D) II only
51. Assertion (A) : Based on formation of mucilage due to partial dissolution of outer pectin wall in water, spirogyra is also called pond silk.
Reason (R) : In a matured cell of Spirogyra the cytoplasm is peripheral with a central vacuole
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
52. Match the following :
1) Engler I) Chemosystematics
2) Secondary II) Oak metabolite
3) Natural system III) Embryophyta siphanogama
4) Nut IV) Alpha taxonomy
V) Marigold
1 2 3 4
(A) IV I III V
(B) III I IV V
(C) IV I III II
(D) III I IV II
53. Indicate the four correct statements from the following :
I) Cotton is used either alone or in combination with other fibres in manufacturing all types of textiles
II) Cotton seed oil is used as lubricant and the oil cake is used as poultry feed
III) Mercerised cotton is resulted by treating the cotton fibres with caustic soda
IV) The fuzz (short hairs) is used in preparation of pillows, cushions and mattresses
V) Cotton treated with nitric acid to produce gun powder, which is used in making explosives
(A) I, II, III & IV
(B) I, III, IV & V
(C) II, III, IV & V
(D) I, II, IV & V
54. The system of classification proposed by these scientists is also called as Neo- Adansonian system
(A) Engler & Prantl
(B) Bentham & Hooker
(C) Sokal & Sneath
(D) Camp & Gilly
55. Pick up the wrong statement from the following :
(A) The rate of production of total organic material is known as gross primary productivity
(B) The balance energy or biomass remaining after meeting the cost of respiration of producers is called net primary productivity
(C) The productivity is of three kinds : primary, secondary and tertiary
(D) Net productivity = Gross productivity – Respiration and other losses
56. The several stages of hydrosere along with their suitable examples are given.
Indicate the correct matches from them.
I) Plank stage – Diatoms
II) Woodland stage – Juncus
III) Floating stage – Nymphaea
IV) Submerged stage – Hydrilla
V) Reed swamp stage – Sagittaria
(A) I, II, III & IV
(B) I, III, IV & V
(C) II, III, IV & V
(D) I, II, III & V
57. Addition of consortium or cocktail of micro-organisms to the polluted soil is known as
(A) Biostimulation
(B) Biomagnification
(C) Biofencing
(D) Bioaugmentation
58. Match the following :
1) Littoral and swamp I) Savannas forests
2) Montane wet temperate II) Mangroves forests
3) Natural grasslands III) Relics
4) Species show a IV) Sholas restricted distribution but cover large areasin course of time
V) Progressive endemics
1 2 3 4
(A) II IV I V
(B) II IV I III
(C) IV III I V
(D) IV II I III
59. The study of migration of birds is known as
(A) Phrenology
(B) Phenology
(C) Pedology
(D) Odentology
60. Assertion (A) : The Japanese and Philippine lakes are volcanic lakes in which the extreme chemical conditions are seen.
Reason (R) : Acid or alkaline lakes associated with volcanic regions are called volcanic lakes.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
61. If the fertilized egg of a plant has 40 chromo-mes, the number of chromosomes present in the pollen mother cell is
(A) 80
(B) 160
(C) 40
(D) 60
62. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot (polygonum) at the time of fertilization is
(A) 8 nucleate and 7 celled
(B) 7 nucleate and 8 celled
(C) 4 nucleate and 4 celled
(D) 8 nucleate and 8 celled
63. Assertion (A) : In cleodic egg, the development of embryo is arrested in freshly laid eggs
Reason (R) : Freshly laid eggs show drop in temperature so they need incubation
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) (A) is true, but R is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
64. Match the pattern of embryonic cleavage type (in List 1) with organisms (in List 2)
List – 1 List – 2
I) Radial cleavage 1) Echinoderms
II) Spiral cleavage 2) Tunicates
III) Bilateral cleavage 3) Mammals
IV) Rotational cleavage 4) Annelids
Code :
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 4 2 3
65. During differentiation different cell types make different sets of proteins at several levels in following sequences
I) Differential gene transcription
II) Differential RNA translation
III) Differential RNA processing
IV) Differential protein modification
(A) III, II, I and IV
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, III, II and IV
(D) I, IV, II and III
66. If the deleterious effect of a mutation in a gene are overcome by a mutation in another gene, the process is called
(A) Extra genetic (or) intragenic suppression
(B) Non-sense mutation
(C) Frame shift mutation
(D) Somatic mutation
67. Extra chromosomal inheritance of male sterility was discovered in maize by
(A) Dhawan and Paliwal
(B) M.A. Overman and H.E. Warmke
(C) Jones and Clarke
(D) M.M. Rhodes
68. Assertion (A) : Mental and motor retardation and death by ages 2-4 years are phenotypic effects in the individuals of Tay- Sachs disease.
Reason (R) : In the individuals of Tay- Sachs disease galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase fails
to catalyze transformation of galactose into glucose.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
69. Assertion (A) : Adapted characters acquired by an organism are not inherited.
Reason (R) : They do not get the sufficient time to be fixed at the genetic level.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
70. Assertion (A) : Geological evidence indicates that free oxygen began accumulating in the
atmosphere about two billion years ago.
Reason (R) : The free oxygen in the atmosphere is produced by cyanobacteria like forms.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
71. Assertion (A) : The records of evolution of birds is sketchy.
Reason (R) : The pneumatic bones of birds make poor fossils.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
72. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List – I List – II
(Animals) (Their realm)
I) Protopterus 1) Australian
II) Opossum 2) Ethiopian
III) Sphenodon 3) Nearctic
IV) Prehensile 4) Neotropical
tailed monkey
Code :
I II III IV
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 4 3 1 2
73. According to Darwinism which one represents the correct sequence of events in the origin of new species ?
I) Natural selection, Variation and their inheritance-Survival of the fittest, Struggle for existence
II) Variation and their inheritance, Survival of the fittest, Natural selection, struggle for existence
III) Survival of the fittest, Struggle for existence, Natural selection, Variation and their inheritance
IV) Struggle for existence, Variation and their inheritance, Survival of the fittest, Natural selection
The correct sequence of these scales from the earliest to the most recent
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, I, IV
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) IV, II, III, I
74. Enterokinase stimulates
(A) Trypsin
(B) Trypsinogen
(C) Pepsin
(D) Pepsinogen
75. In the detoxification of ammonia, the key intermediate product i.e., the synthesis of citrulline is appeared to be present in the following extra hepatic tissues
I) Brain
II) Intestine
III) Kidney
IV) Lungs
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) I and III are correct
(D) I, III and IV are correct
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