1.
71.
Equilibrium constant (K) of noncovalent interaction between two non-bonded
atoms of two different groups was measured at 27°C. It was observed that K =
100 M-1 . The strength of this noncovalent interaction in terms of Gibbs free
energy change is:
1. 2746 kcal/mole
2. -2746 kcal/mole
3. 247 kcal/mole.
4. -247 kcal/mole
2.
72.
If van der Waals interaction is described by the following relation,
where ∆Gvan is the free
energy of the van der Waals interaction, A and B are constants, r is the
distance between two nonbonded atoms 1 and 2, and q1 and q2 are partial charges
on the dipoles 1 and 2. In this relation, the parameter A describes
(1) electron shell attraction
(2) electron shell repulsion
(3) dipole-dipole attraction
(4) dipole-dipole repulsion
3.
73.
The pH of blood of a healthy person is maintained at 7.40 ± 0.05. Assuming that
this pH is maintained entirely by the bicarbonate buffer (pKa1 and pKa2 of
carbonic acid are 6.1 and 10.3, respectively), the molar ratio of
[bicarbonate]/[carbonic acid] in the blood is
(1) 0.05
(2) 1
(3) 10
(4) 20
4.
74.
The hydrolysis of pyrophosphate to orthophosphate is important for several
biosynthetic reactions. In E. coli, the molecular mass of the enzyme
pyrophosphatase is 120 kD, and it consists of six identical subunits. The
enzyme activity is defined as the amount of enzyme that hydrolyzes 10 µmol of
pyrophosphate in 15 minutes at 37 °C under standard assay condition. The
purified enzyme has a Vmax 0f 2800 units per milligram of the enzyme.
How many moles of the substrate are hydrolysed per second
per milligram of the enzyme when the substrate concentration is much greater
than Krn?
(1) 0.05 µmol
(2) 62 µmol
(3) 31.1 µmol
(4) 1 flmol
5.
75.
Denaturation profiles of DNA are shown below.
The differences in the profiles arise because
1. The DNA is single stranded but of different sizes
2. A + T content of A > B > C and the DNA are from
complex genomes
3. G + C content of C > B > A in DNA of
comparable sizes isolated from simplegenomes
4. G + C content is identical but A + T content in
A>B>C in DNA of comparable sizes isolated from simple genomes
6.
76.
Biosynthesis of tyrosine is detailed below:
Shikimic acid ---a-àshikimic acid-5-phosphate ----b--àC ---àChorismic acid -----àprephenic acid D --------transaminase—co2----nadh--àtyrosine.
Identify A, B, C and D.
1. ATP, phosphoenolpymvic acid, 3-enolpyruyl
shikimic acid-5-phosphate, phydroxyphenylpyruvic acid
2. GTP, pyridoxal phosphate, 3-enolpyruvyl shikimic
acid-5-phosphate, phenylpyruvic acid,
3. NADP, 3-phosphohydroxypyruvic acid, 3-enolpyruvyl
shikimic acid-5-phosphate, p-hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid
4. ATP, 3-phosphohydroxyp yruvic acid, 3-enolpyruvyl
shikimic acid-5-phosphate, pyridoxylphosphate
7.
77.
A nerve impulse or action potential is generated from transient changes in the
permeability of the axon membrane to Na+ and K+ ions. The depolarization of the
membrane beyond the threshold level leads to Na+ flowing into the cell and a
change in membrane potential to a positive value. The K+ channel then opens
allowing K+ to flow outwards ultimately restoring membrane potential to the
resting value. The Na+ and K+ channels operate in opposite
directions because
1. there is an electrochemical gradient growth generated by
proton transport
2. there is a difference in Na+ and K+
concentrations on either side of the membrane
3. Na+ is a voltage-gated channel, whereas K+ is
ligand-gated
4. Na+ is dependent on ATP whereas K+ is not
8.
78.
The erythrocyte membrane cytoskeleton consists of a meshwork of proteins
underlying the membrane. The principal component spectrin has a, p subunits
which assemble to form tetramers. The cytoskeleton is anchored to the membrane
through linkages with the transmembrane proteins band 3 and glycophorin C. The
cytosolic domain of band 3 also serves as the binding site of glycolytic
enzymes such as glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase. Analysis of the blood
sample of a patient with haemolytic anemia shows spherical red blood cells. The
patient carries a mutation in glycophorin C
1. a mutation in glycophorin C
2. a mutant spectrin with increased tetramerization
propensity
3. mutant spectrin defective in dimerization
ability
4. mutant glyceraldehyde 3-phosp'hate dehydrogenase
9.
79.
In human, protein coding genes are mainly organized as "exons" and
introns". There are intergenic regions that transcribe into various types
of non-coding RNA (not translating into protein). Some introns may harbor also
transcription units, which are
1. always other protein coding genes
2. protein coding gene and RNA coding genes
3. always RNA coding genes
4. pseudo genes
10.
80.
Maturation-promoting factor (MPF) controls the initiation of mitosis in
eukaryotic cells. MPF kinase activity requires cyclin B.
Cyclin B is required for chromosome condensation and
breakdown of the nuclear envelope into vesicles. Cyclin B degradation is
followed by chromosome decondensation, nuclear envelope reformation and exit
from mitosis. This requires ubiquitination of a cyclin destruction box motif in
cyclin B. RNase-treated Xenopus egg extracts and sperm chromatin were mixed.
MPF activity increased with chromosome condensation and nuclear envelope
breakdown. However, this was not followed by chromosome decondensation and
nuclear envelope reformation because
1. RNase contamination persisted in the system
2. cyclin B was missing from the system
3. ubiquitin ligase had been overexpressed
4. cyclin B lacking the cyclin destruction box had
been overexpressed
11.
81.
Many cancers carry mutant p53 genes, while some cancers have normal p53 genes,
p53 activates (Waf1) which inhibits G1/S-Cdks and phosphorylation the
retinoblastoma protein (Rb). Cancers with normal p53 genes could
I. express non-phosphorylatable f0rm of Rb
2. express high levels ofp53-deubiquitinases
3. express inactive forms of G1/S-Cdks
4. express inactive forms of G1/S cyclins
12.
82.
A fixed smear of a bacterial culture is subjected to the following solutions in
the order listed below and appeared red.
(a) Carbolfuchsin (heated) (b) Acid-alcohol (c) Methylene
blue
Bacteria stained by this method can be identified as
(1) Non-acid fast E. coli
(2) Acid-fast Mycobacterium sp.
(3) Gram-positive E. coli
(4) Gram-negative Mycobacterium sp.
13.
83.
In an in vitro experiment using radio labeled nucleotides, a researcher is
trying to analyze the possible products of DNA replication by resolving the
products using urea polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis. In one experimental set
up RNase H was added (Set 1), while in another set no RNase H was added (Set
2).
The possible observations of this experiment could be
A. There is no difference in the mobility of labeled DNA
fragments between the Set 1 and Set 2
B. There is distinct difference in the mobility of the newly
synthesized labeled DNA fragments between Set 1 and Set 2
C. The mobility of the newly synthesized labeled DNA
fragments in case of Set 1 is faster as compared to the Set 2
D. The mobility of the newly synthesized labeled DNA
fragments in case of Set 1 is slower as compared to the Set 2
Which of the following combinations represent correct
observations?
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A
and D (4) B and D
14.
84.
Synthesis of normal hemoglobin requires coordinated synthesis of a globin and ß
globin. Thalassemias are genetic defects perturbed in this coordinated
synthesis. Patients suffering from deficiency of p globin chains
(ß-thalassemia) could also be due to mutations affecting the biosynthesis of ß
globin mRNA.
The following statements describe the genesis of
non-functional p globin leading to pthalassemia.
A. Mutation in the promoter region of the ß globin gene.
B. Mutation in the splice junction of the ß globin gene.
C. Mutation in the intron I of the ß globin gene.
D. Mutations towards the 3' end of the ß globin gene that
codes for polyadenylation site.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
(1) A, B and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) C, D and A
15.
85.
Pre-mRNAs are rapidly bound by snRNPs which carry out dual steps of RNA that
removes the introns and joins the upstream and downstream exons.
The following statements describe some facts related to this
event.
A. Almost all introns begin with GU and end with AG
sequences and hence all the GU or AG sequences are spliced out of RNA.
B. U2 RNA recognizes important sequences at the 3'acceptor
end of the intron.
C. The spliceosorhe uses A to carry out accurate removal of
intron.
D. An unusual linkage with 2' OH group of guanosine within
the intron forms a 'Lariat' structure.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) D and A
16.
86.
For continuation of protein synthesis in bacteria, ribosomes need to be
released from the mRNA as well as to dissociate into subunits. These processes
do not occur spontaneously.
They need the following possible conditions:
A. RRF and EF-G aid in this process
B. intrinsic activity of ribosomes and an uncharged tRNA are
required
C. IF-I promotes dissociation of ribosomes
D. IF-3 and IF-1 promote dissociation of ribosomes
Which of the following sets is correct?
(1) A and D (2) A and B (3) A and C (4) B and D
17.
87.
Insulin and other growth factors stimulate a pathway involving a protein kinase
mTOR, which in its turn augments protein synthesis. mTOR essentially modifies
protein(s) which in their unmodified form act as inhibitors of protein
synthesis. The following proteins are possible candidates:
A. eEF-I B. eIF-4E-BP1 C. eIF-4E D. PHAS-1
Which of the following sets is correct '?
(1) A and B
(2) B and D
(3) A and C
(4) Band C
18.
88.
Bacteriophage ., has two modes in its life cycle, lytic and lysogenic. In the
lysogenic mode, the expression of all the phage genes are repressed while the
expression of repressor gene switches between on and off position depending on
the concentration of repressor.
The following statements are made:
A. Repressor may act both as a positive regulator and a
negative regulator
B. Expression of repressor gene, cI is independent of the
expression of cll and cIII genes.
C. Mutation of cI gene will cause it to form clear plaques
on both wild type E.coli and E.coli (.+)
D. Mutation at operators, OL and OR will allow the phage to
act as a virulent phage.
The Correct statements are
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) D and A
19.
89.
Survival of intracellular pathogens depends all the levels of pro-inflammatory
and anti-inflammatory cytokines in macrophages. In an experimental condition,
Mycobacreria infected macrophages were treated with lL-6 or IL-12 for 4 hours
at 37 °C. Untreated cells were used as control. Cells were lysed and number of
bacteria in each experimental set was counted by measuring colony forming unit
(CFU). Which of the following observations is true?
1. IL-12 treated cells contain more intracellular bacteria
than control
2. IL-12 treated cells contain less intracellular
bacteria than control
3. IL-6 treated cells contain more intracellular bacteria
than control
4. IL-6 treated cells contain less intracellular bacteria
than control
20.
90.
The bacterial flagellar motor is a multi-protein complex. Rotation of the
flagellum requires movement of protons across the membrane facilitated by a
multi-protein complex. The flagellar motor proteins combine to create a proton
channel that drives mechanical rotation.
In a screen for mutants, some non-motile ones were selected.
These could have
1. mutations in tubulin and actin proteins
2. mutations in kinesin proteins
3. mutated H+-ATPase
4. mutations in the charged residues lining the ridge of the
FliG subunit
21.
91.
A bacterial response regulator turns on gene A in its phosphorylated form. The
amount of "A" shows a sharp and steep rise at a threshold
concentration of the signal sensed by the cognate sensor. This is most likely
due to
1. increased phosphatase activity of the sensor at
the threshold concentration
2. decreased phosphorylation of the response regulator by
the sensor
3. co-operativity in binding of the response regulator to
the target gene A
4. negative feedback in gene A expression
22.
92.
Intracellular transport and cytoskeletal organization of a cell is regulated by
nucleotide exchange of different small molecular weight GTPases OfRas super
family.
Over expression of which of the following GTPase modulates
the actin-cytoskeleton of HeLa cells?
(1) Ran in GDP bound form
(2) Ran in GTP bound form
(3) Rho in GTP bound form
(4) Rho in GDP bound form
23.
93.
You are given a group of four mice. Each mouse is immunized with keyhole limpet
hemocyanin or azobenzene arsonate or lipopolysaccharide or dextran. Four weeks
later, sera were collected from these mice arid antigen-specific IgG1 and IgG2a
ELISA were perforn1ed. Only one of the mice showed positive response. It was
1. keyhole limpet hemocyanin-primed mouse
2. azobenze arsonate-primed mouse
3. lipopolysaccharide-primed mouse
4, dextran-primed mouse
24.
94.
Tumor cells were isolated from a breast cancer patient. These cells were
injected into nude mice and they were divided into four groups. Group 1
received EGF receptor-conjugated with methotrexate; Group 2 received
transferrin receptor-conjugated with methotrexate; Group 3 received mannose
receptor-conjugated with methotrexate; Group 4 received same amount of the free
drug. In which of the following cases tumorigenic index would be minimum?
1. Free drug
2. EGF receptor-conjugated drug
3. Transferrin receptor-conjugated drug
4. Mannose receptor-conjugated drug
25.
95.
When the prospective neurons from an early gastrula of a frog were transplanted
into the prospective epidermis region, the donor cells differentiated into
epidermis. However, when a similar experiment was done with the late gastrula
of frog, the prospective neurons developed into neurons only. These
observations could possibly be explained by the following phenomena.
A. The early gastrula shows conditional development whereas
the late gastrula shows autonomous development.
B. The early gastrula shows autonomous development whereas
the late gastrula shows conditional development.
C. The prospective neurons from the early gastrula are only
specified whereas those from the late gastrula are determined.
D. The prospective neurons from the early gastrula are
determined whereas those from the late gastrula are specified.
Which of the conclusions drawn above are correct?
(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A and D
(4) B and C
26.
96.
AP1 (APETLA1) is one of the floral meristem identifying genes. In wild type
Arabidopsis thaliana plants transformed with AP1: :GUS, ß-glucuronidase (GUS)
activity is seen in floral meristem, only after the commitment to flowering.
Ectopic expression of AP1::GUS in the EMBRYONIC FLOWER (emf) mutant background
results in GUS activity throughout the shoots in four day old seedlings.
These observations
suggest that API is:
I. not involved in flowering
2. involved in repression of flowering
3. involved in promoting flowering
4. stimulation of flowering in the emf background
27.
97.
In case of morphallactic regeneration:
1. there is repatterning of the
existing tissues with little new growth
2. there is repatterning of the existing tissues after the
stem cell division has taken place
3. there is cell division of the differentiated cells which
maintain their differentiated state to finally form a complete organism.
4. there is dedifferentiation of the cells at the cut
surface which become undifferentiated. These undifferentiated cells then divide
to rediffere11tiate to form the complete structure
28.
98.
The decision to become either a trophoblast or inner cell mass blastomere is
one of the first decisions taken by any mammalian embryo. Below is a
diagrarnrnatic representation of the different cells formed during development
from the morula with the help of different molecules. Identify the molecules
1-4, sequentially.
(1) cdx2, Oct 4, Nanog, Stat 3
(3) cdx 2, Nanog, Oct 4, Stat 3
(2) cdx 2, Nanog, Stat 3, Oct 4
(4) cdx 2, Oct 4, Stat 3, Nanog
29.
99.
With respect to the extra embryonic structures formed in the mammals, the
possible functional attributes have been designated:
A. Allantoin stores urinary waste and helps mediate gas
exchange. It is derived from splanchnopleure at the caudal end of the primitive
streak.
B. Amnion is awater sac and protects the embryo and its
surrounding amniotic fluid. This epithelium is derived from somatopleure.
C. Chorion is essential for gas exchange in amniote embryos.
It is generated from the splanchnopleure.
D. Yolk sac is the last embryonic membrane to form and is
derived from somatopleure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) Band C
(4) A and D
30.
A. The concentration of FGF decreases from the yolk towards
the epidermis, along with the increase of BMP activity from the dorsal to the
ventral axis.
B. Increase in FGF activity in the epidermis with
concomitant decrease in BMP activity towards the ventral axis
C. Neural induction in zebrafish is independent of the
organizer and depends on activation of BMP signaling.
D. In comparison, both Xenopus and chick embryos require
activation of FGF for neural induction to occur in addition to BMP inhibition.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) A and C
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) C and D
31.
101.
Following are some of the statements regarding the effect of CO2 concentration
on photosynthesis in plants.
A. With elevated CO2 levels, C3 plants are much more
responsive than C4 plants under well watered conditions.
B. In C3 plants, increasing intracellular CO2 partial
pressure can stimulate photosynthesis only over a narrow range.
C. In C4 plants, C02 compensation point is nearly zero.
Which one of the following combination of above statements
is correct?
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C
(4) Only C
102.
The
quantum yield of photosynthetic carbon fixation in a C3 plant and C4 plant is
studied as a function of leaf temperature.
Following are some statements based on this study.
A. At lower temperature the quantum yield of C3 plant is
lower than C4 plant.
B. In C4 plant quantum yield does not show a temperature
dependence.
C. Since the photorespiration is low in C4 plants because of
C02 concentrating mechanism, quantum yield is not affected.
D. At higher temperature the quantum yield of C3 plant is
lower than C4 plant.
Which one of the following combination of above statements
is correct?
(1) A, Band D
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, Band C
(4) A, C and D
103.
Following
are some statements regarding plant growth hormones.
A. Ethylene regulates abscission.
B. Gibberlins do not play any role in
flowering.
C. Auxin and cytokinin promote cell
division.
D. Over expression of cytokinin oxidase
would promote root growth.
E. ABA inhibits root growth and
promotes shoot growth at low water potential.
F. ABA promotes leaf senescence
independent of ethylene.
Which one of the following combination
of above statements is correct?
(1) A, C and F
(2) B, C and D
(3) D, E and F
(4) B, D and E
104.
Following
are some statements for synthesis of jasmonic acid in plants
A. 12-oxo-phytodienoic acid is produced
in chloroplast and transported to peroxisome.
B. Action of lipoxygenase, allene oxide
synthase and allene oxide cyclase takes place in peroxisome.
C. 12-oxo-phytodicnoic acid is first reduced
and then converted to jasmonic acid by ß oxidation.
D. Final production of jasmonic acid
takes place in chloroplast.
E. Action of allene oxide synthase and
allene oxide cyclase takes place in chloroplast.
Which one of the following combination
of above statements is correct?
(1) A, Band C
(2) B, D and E
(3) C, D and E
(4) A, C and E
105.
Following
are some statements about low temperature stress in plants.
A. Fatty acid composition of
mitochondria isolated from chilling resistant and chilling
sensitive plants differs significantly.
B. Ratio of unsaturated fatty acids to
saturated fatty acids is lower in chilling resistant species.
C. The cellular water does not freeze
even at -40°C, because of the presence of solutes and other antifreeze proteins.
D. Heat shock proteins do not play any
role during low temperature stress.
Which one of the following combination
of above statement is correct?
(1)
A and B
(2) A and C
(3) B and C
(4) B and D
106.
An
isolated carotid sinus was prepared so that the pressure may be regulated by a
pump and the resulting discharge in single carotid sinus nerve fibre could be
recorded. The following are the possible observations.
A. No discharge when carotid sinus
perfusion pressure was below 30 mm Hg.
B. Linear increase in discharge
frequency when carotid sinus perfusion pressure was gradually increased from 70
to 110 mm Hg.
C. Increase in discharge frequency was
more prominent in greater pulsatile changes of carotid sinus pressure keeping
the mean
pressure identical in all cases.
D. Increase in discharge was more
prominent in the falling phase of pulsatile change of carotid sinus pressure
than in the rising phase.
Which one of the following is correct?
(1) A, B and C
(2) A and C
(3) Band D
(4) D only *
107.
107.
For a normal heart, the time taken for atrial systole and diastole are As and
Ad seconds, respectively, while the same for ventricular systole and diastole
are Vs and Vd. Which one of the following equations is correct?
(1) As + Ad = Vs + Vd
(2) As + Ad < Vs + Vd
(3) As + Ad = Vs + Vd = 0
(4) As + Ad > Vs + Vd
108.
108.
During the spanish conquest of the Inca Empire at the high altitude in Peru,
many soldiers fell sick. It was found that the sickness was due to low partial pressure of O2 in the
atmosphere at that altitude. To determine the reason, blood was collected from
those patients. The circulating
erythropoietin (EPO) level were estimated and the O2-dissociation curve of
hemoglobin were drawn and compared with the same in native people as depicted
below.
Which one of the following combinations
is logically correct?
(1) A and C
(2) A and D
(3) B and C
(4) B and D
109.
109.
A monkey undergoes cerebellectomy. After the post-operative recovery, the monkey
was given a task to press a bar. The possible observations are:
A. Its hand would overshoot the target
while reaching the bar.
B. It would be unable to move
forelimbs.
C. It would show intention tremor while
trying to press the bar.
D. It would press the bar with mouth
instead of hand.
Which one of the following is correct?
(1) A and C
(2) B only
(3) D only
(4) B and D
110.
110.
A 1 meter tall object was placed 10 meter in front of a normal eye. The size of
the image on the retina will be (consider distance between lens and retina =
1.7 cms)
(1) 0.17 mm
(2) 1.7 mm
(3) 3.4 mm
(4) 170 µm
111.
111.
The graph represents relative plasma concentration of hormones (A and B) during
reproductive cycle in a normal female. Which one of the following combinations
is correct?
1. (A) is FSH and (B) is estrogen
2. (A) is FSH and (B) is LH
3. (A) is estrogen and (B)
isLH
4. (A) is LH and (B) is FSH
112.
112.
The following figure depicts the relationship between a genetic map for four
genes (A, B, C and D) and their corresponding physical map:
The following statements are made to explain this
relationship.
A. More number of recombination events
occur between A and B as compared to Band C.
B. Lesser number of recombination
events occur between C and D as compared to B and C.
C. Although the physical distance
between A and B is less than that between C and D, the region between A and B
is more
recombinogenic.
D. The physical distance between A and
B is less than that between C and D, and thus the region between A and B is
less
recombinogenic.
E. Although the physical distance
between C and D is more than that between Band C, the region between C and D
is'less
recombinogenic.
F. Although the physical distance
between C and D is more than Band C, the region between C and D is more
recombinogenic.
Which statements are correct?
(1) A and B
(2) C and E
(3) D and F
(4) A, C and E
113.
Consider
the following crosses involving grey (wild-type) and yellow body colour true
breeding Drosophila:
Assuming 200 F2 offsprings are produced in cross 2, which
one of the following outcome is expected?
1. 97 grey males, 54 yellow females, 49
grey males
2. 102 yellow males, 46 yellow females,
52 grey females
3. 52 grey males, 49 yellow
males, 48 yellow females, 51 grey females
4. 98 grey males, 94 yellow females, 2
yellow males, 6 grey females
114.
114.
The ABO blood type in human is under the control of autosomal multiple alleles.
Colour blindness is recessive X-linked trait. A male with a blood type A and
normal vision marries a female who also has blood type A and normal vision. The
couple's first child is a male who is colour blind and has 0 blood group. What
is the probability that their next female child has normal vision and 0 blood
group?
(1) ¼
(2) ¾
(3) 1/8
(4) 1
115.
115.
In E. coli four Hfr strains donate the following genetic markers in the order
shown below:
Which of the
following depicts the correct 0rder 6tthe markers and the site of integration
of the F-factor in the four Hfr strains?ans : 2
116.
116.
The following is a schematic representation of region (showing six bands) of
the polytene chromosome of Drosophila, along with the extent of five deletions
(Dell to Del5):
Recessive alleles a, b, c, d, e and f are known to
correspond to each of the bands (1 to 6), but their order is not known. When
the recessive alleles are placed against each of these deletions, the following
results are obtained. The plus (+) in the fable indicates wild type phenotype
of the corresponding allele, while a minus (-) indicates the phenotype governed
by the corresponding mutant allele.
Which
one of the following indicates the correct location of the recessive alleles on
the bands of the polytene chromosomes?
(1) a-3; b-1; c-2; d-4; e-5; f-6.
(2) a-2; b-1; c-3; d-4; e-5; f-6.
(3) a-4; b-1;
c-2; d-3; e-5; f-6.
(4) a-6; b-2; c-3; d-4; e-1; f-5.
117.
117.
Assuming a 1: 1 sex ratio, what is the probability that three children from the
same parents will consist of two daughters and one son?
(1) 0.375
(2) 0.125
(3) 0.675
(4) 0.75
118.
118.
Chlorophyll pigment composition and carbohydrate food reserves of some algal
groups are given below:
Pigments: (i) Chlorophyll a and b; (ii) Chlorophyll a and c.
Carbohydrate food reserve: (a) Paramylon; (b) Starch; (c) Laminarin; (d)
Leucosin.
Identify the correct combination of the characters for the
given groups.
1. Euglenophyta -(i and a); Bacillariophyta - (ii
and d); Phaeophyta - (ii and c); Chlorophyta -(i and b)
2. Euglenophyta -(ii and a); Bacillariophyta - (ii and d);
Phaeophyta --(i and c); Chlorophyta - (i and b)
3. Euglenophyta -(i and a); Bacillariophyta -(ii and b);
Phaeophyta -(i and c); Chlorophyta -(ii and d)
4. Ettglenophyta -(i and d); Bacillariophyta - (ii and a);
Phaeophyta -(ii and c); Chlorophyta -(i and b)
119.
119.
Identify the synapomorphies in the following cladogram:
1. (a) seeds with long terminal wing; (b) ovules 1-20 per
scale; (c) resin canals; (d) 1 ovule per scale
2. (a) resin canals; (b) seeds with long terminal
wing; (c) 1 ovule per scale; (d) ovules 1-20 per scale
3. (a) resin canals; (b) ovules 1-20 per scale; (c) seeds
with long terminal wing; (d) 1 ovule per scale
4. (a) seeds with long terminal wing; (b) ovules 1-20 per
scale; (c) 1 ovule per scale; (d) resin canals
120.
120.
From among the five animals listed below, match the two attributes -amniotic
egg and endothermy, with the correct animal(s):
(a) fish (b) frog (c) crocodile (d) pigeon (e) zebra
1. Amniotic egg:b, c, d; Endothermy: d, e
2. Amniotic egg: c, d, e; Endothermy: d, e
3. Amniotic egg: a, b, c, d; Endothermy: c, d, e
4. Amniotic egg: b, c, d; Endothermy: c, d, e
121.
121.
During a field study, three insects with the following characteristics were
observed:
A: elongate, membranous wings with netlike venation, long
and slender abdomen, large, compound eyes
B: small bodied, sucking mouth parts, narrow wings fringed
with setae
C: sclerotized forewings, membranous hindwings, chewing
mouth parts
They can be identified to their respective orders as
1. A -Orthoptera; B-Hemiptera; C-Coleoptera
2. A -Odonata; B-Coleoptera; C-Hemiptera
3. A -Orthoptera; B -Odonata; C-Coleoptera
4. A -Odonata;.B-Thysanoptera; C-Coleoptera
122.
122.
Several distinct time periods and different routes might explain the entrance
of marsupials into Australia.
(i) Late Jurassic - early therians arrived in Antarctica -
Australia where the marsupials subsequently evolved.
(ii) Early to middle Cretaceous -early marsupials arrived in
Australia from northern regions and then radiated in isolation.
(iii) Paleocene -marsupials entered Australia from
South-East Asia.
(iv) Eocene-chance dispersal of marsupials into Australia-
Which of the following is the correct combination?
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv)
123.
123.
Which of the following is NOT true for a critically endangered species?
1. Reduction of population breeding ability due to increased
relatedness through the action of incompatibility mechanisms in plants or
behavioral difficulties in animals.
2. The individuals of the species which have
declined to low numbers are still a genetically open system.
3. Loss of some alleles from the species causing loss of
genetic diversity with consequent inability to respond rapidly to selection.
4. Expression of deleterious alleles and increased homozygosity
increases mortality of young, and inbreeding depression leads to reduced
offspring fitness.
124.
124.
Ecological compression differs from character displacement in that it operates
on a
1. shorter timescale and does not involve
heritable change.
2. longer timescale and does not involve heritable change.
3. shorter timescale and involves heritable change.
4. longer timescale and involves heritable change.
125.
125.
Autotrophs in the aquatic ecosystem, unlike their counterparts in the
terrestrial ecosystem, are mostly microscopic and very low in indigestible (to
the herbivores) matter. This explains the fact that compared to the terrestrial
ecosystem, in the aquatic ecosystem
1. Productivity/Biomass ratios are higher and
energy transfer rates to higher trophic levels are faster.
2. Productivity/Biomass ratios are lower and the energy
transfer rates to higher trophic levels are slower.
3. Productivity/Biomass ratios are lower and the energy
transfer rate to higher trophic levels are faster.
4. Productivity/Biomass ratios are higher and the energy
transfer rate to higher trophic levels are slower.
126.
126.
Which of the following graphs illustrates the current consensus on the role of
disturbance on the species richness of a community?
127.
127.
In the global nitrogen cycle, the following microbial organisms are involved
III three important process -denitrification, nitrification and nitrogen
fixation.
(a) Rhizobium (b) Nitrosomonas (c) Nitrobacter (d)
Pseudomonas (e) Azotobacter.
Which of the following is the correCtly matched pair of
process and its causative species?
1. Denitrification -(b); nitrogen fixation -(c) and (e);
nitrification -(d)
2. Denitrification -(d); nitrogen fixation - (a)
and (e); nitrification -(c)
3. Denitrification -(e); nitrogen fixation -(a) and (d);
nitrification -(d)
4. Denitrification -(b); nitrogen fixation -(a) and (d);
nitrification -(c)
128.
128.
Suppose you discovered a new species about which you know only two facts: it is
small-sized (<10 cm) and short-lived (<20d).
Which of the following reproductive strategies is most
likely to be true for this species?
1. Breeds early and more than once in life and produces
large number of small-sized offspring.
2. Breeds late and only once in life and produces large
number of small-sized offspring.
3. Breeds early and only once in life and produces
large number of small-sized offspring.
4. Breeds early and only once in life and produces a small
number of large-sized offspring.
129.
129.
The genetic relatedness (r) of an individual to his nephew is 0.25. The alleles
that cause uncles to care for nephews will spread, according to Hamilton's
Rule, only if the fitness benefit is
(1) equal to the cost of care.
(2) more than the cost of care by 25%.
(3) double the cost of care.
(4) four times the cost of care. *
130.
130.
The frequencies of two alleles p and q for a gene locus in a population at
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are 0.3 and 0.7, respectively.
After a few generations of inbreeding, the heterozygote
frequency was found to be 0.28.
The inbreeding coefficient in this case is
(1) 0.42
(2) 0.28
(3) 0.33
(4) 0.67
131.
131.
Which of the following behavioral changes are expected in a rat when its
nucleus accumbens is experimentally ablated?
(1) Aggressive behavior increases
(3) Nest-building activity increases
(2) Exploratory behavior decreases
(4) Level of parental care drops
132.
132.
Number of trials required for rats to learn a task when they were exposed to
various conditions were as follows:
Experimental Conditions
Observations
A Light: light dark cycle -12h: 12h N -trials
B Bright light -24 h Significantly
more trials than 'N'
C Bright light -24 h + continuous physical disturbance : Significantly more trials than 'N'
D Dark light -24h + continuous physical disturbance :Significantly
more trials than 'N'
Which of the following inferences is most appropriate?
(1) Continuous light enhanced learning
(2) Continuous darkness inhibited learning
(3) Physical activity inhibited learning
(4) Learning was reduced by sleep loss
133.
133.
Assume a male sparrow (species X) is hatched and reared in isolation
and-allowed a critical imprinting period to hear the song of a male of another
sparrow (species Y). Now after the isolation, what kind of behavior will
species X show?
1. It will sing the song of species Y that it had
heard in the critical period.
2. It will sing the song of its own species X.
3. It will not sing at all.
4. It will sing a song not sung by either X or Y.
134.
134.
Enzymes are nowadays used extensively in bioprocessing industries.
Enzyme 1 is used for treatment of hides to provide a finer
texture, in leather processing and manufacture of glue. Enzyme 2 is used for
clarification of fruit juices. Identify Enzymes 1 and 2
Enzyme 1 Enzyme
2
1. Amylase Pectinase
2. Protease Amylase
3. Protease Pectinase
4. Pectinase Amylase
135.
135.
In order to prevent tetanus in neonates, one of the following treatments can be
adopted.
A. Treatment of the infant with anti-toxin and the toxoid.
B. Immunize the mother with the toxoid.
In case of A, the treatment can he given
a. immediately after birth
b. after the onset of the condition.
In case of B, the immunization has to be done
c. before pregnancy.
d. late in the pregnancy.
The correct combination is
(1) A/a
(2) A/b
(3) B/c
(4) B/d
136.
136.
Genomic DNA of transgenic plants (P1, P2 and P3) obtained by transforming with
binary vector A whose map is depicted below, was digested with BamH I and Sal I
and hybridized with a labeled fragment X
The pattern obtained
in Southern hybridization is shown below:
Based on the above, which of the following interpretations
is correct:
1. All the plants (P1, P2 and P3) contain two copies of the
transgene
2. P1, P3 contain one and P2 contains two copies of the
transgene
3. P1 contains two, whereas P2 and P3 contain one
copy of transgene each
4. P1 and P2 contains two and P3 contains one copy of the
transgene
137.
137.
The following are statements about molecular markers in the context of plant
breeding.
A. Molecular markers can be used for elimination of
undesirable traits.
B. Molecular markers cannot be used for estimation of the
genetic contribution of each individual parent in a segregating population.
C. Molecular markers are used for mapping of QTLs, which is'
also possible by conventional techniques.
D. Molecular markers can be used for selection of
individuals from a population that are homozygous for the recurrent parent
genotype at loci flanking the target locus.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
(1) A and B (2) A and C (3) A
and D (4) B and C
138.
138.
In 'TaqMan' assay for detection of base substitutions (DNA variant), probes
(oligonucleotides) with fluorescent dyes at the 5' -end and a quencher at 3'
-end are used.
While the probe is intact, the proximity of the. quencher
reduces the fluorescence emitted by reporter dye. If the target sequences (wild
type or the variant) are present, the probe anneals to the target sequence,
downstream to one of the primers used for amplifying the DNA sequence flanking
the position of the variants. For an assay two flanking PCR primers, two probes
corresponding to the wild type and variant allele and labelled with two
different reporter dyes and quencher were used.
During extension the probe may be cleaved by the
Taq-polymerase separating the reporter dye and the quencher. Three individuals
were genotyped using this assay. Sample for individual I shows maximum
fluorescence for the dye attached to the wild type probe, sample for individual
II shows maximum fluorescence for the dye attached to variant probe and sample
for individual III exhibits equal
fluorescence for both the dyes. Which of the following
statement is correct?
1. Individual I is homozygous for the variant allele.
2. Individual II is homozygous for variant allele.
3. Individual II is homozygous for wild type allele.
4. Individual III is homozygous for wild type allele.
139.
139.
Stem cell therapies are being used in regenerative medicine like forming new
adult bone, which usually does not regrow to bridge wide gaps. Successful
attempts have now been made in this area because the same paracrine and
endocrine factors were found to be involved in both endochondral ossification
and fracture repair. Few methods to achieve the above are given below:
A. Develop a collagen gel containing plasmids carrying the
human parathyroid hormone gene and place in the gap between the ends of the
broken leg.
B. Develop a gel matrix disc containing genetically modified
stem cells to excrete BMP4 and VEGF-A and implant it at the site of the wound.
C. Make scaffolds of material that resemble normal
extracellular matrix that could be molded to form the shape of a bone needed
and seed them with bone marrow stem cell.
D. Develop a collagen gel containing plasmids carrying the
human bone marrow cells and place them between the ends of the bones.
Which of the above methods would you employ to develop a new
functional bone in patients with severely fractured bones
(1) A and B
(2) A, Band C
(3) A and C
(4) C and D
140.
140.
Cre/loxP system is used by phage PI to remove terminally redundant sequences
that arise during packaging of the phage DNA. Crelox system can be used to
create targeted deletions, insertions and inversion in genomes of transgenic
animals and plants. Consider a series of genetic markers A to K. How should the
Lox P sites be positioned in order that Cre recombinase can create an inversion
in the EFG segment relative to ABCD and HIJK ?
141.
141.
Figures A and B respectively represent the dideoxy sequencing gels obtained for
partial sequences from 5'-ends of a bacterial gene and its mutant (with a point
mutation).
What type of mutation has occurred in the gene?
(1) Nonsense
(2) Missense
(3)
Frameshift
(4) Transversion
142.
142.
T cell proliferation in vivo is to be analyzed. The cells are labeled with CFSE
(a fluorescent probe) and injected in CD86-deficient mice and BALB/c mice along
with the required antigens. Three days later, the cells are recovered and
analyzed by flow cytometry.
Which one of the following is logically correct?
143.
143.
The most important property of any microscope is its power of resolution, which
is numerically equivalent to D, the minimum distance between two
distinguishable objects. D depends on three parameters namely, the angular
aperture, a, the refractive index, N, and wavelength, ., of the incident light.
Below are given few possible options to increase the resolution of the
microscope.
A. Decrease the value of . or increase either N or a to
improve resolution.
B. Moving the objective lens closer to the specimen will
decrease sin a and improve the resolution.
C. Using a medium with high refraction index between the
specimen and the objective lens to improve the resolution.
D. Increase the wavelength of the incident light to improve
the resolution.
Which of the following combination of above statements is
correct?
(1) A and C
(2) Band C
(3) A and D
(4) C and D
144.
144.
In an animal experiment;
(i) Electrical stimulation of an area in the brain (A)
increased a function (F) which was prevented by systemic injection of
adrenergic antagonistic, prazosin.
(ii) Injection of carbathol (cholinergic agonist) into A
also increased function F which was, however, not prevented by systemic
injection of adrenergic antagonistic, prazosm.
The results are likely to be due to the stimulation of
1. Nonadrenergic and cholinoceptive neurons
2. Cholinergic and non-adrenoceptive neurons
3. adrenergic terminals in 'A'
4. both neurons and fibres passing through 'A'
145.
145.
In the following statement taken from a research paper, what does p in the
parenthesis stand for?
"The mean temperature of this region now is
significantly higher than the one 50 years ago (p< 0.05, t-test)"
1. Ratio of the mean temperatures of the two time
periods tested *
2. Probability of the error of rejecting a true null
hypothesis
3. Probability of the error of accepting a false null
hypothesis
4. Probability of the t-test being effective in detecting
significant differences in the mean annual temperatures of the two time
periods.
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